Consider this Punnett Square and the space that has been left blank (with question marks). If the dominant phenotype for trait "A" is red eyes and the recessive phenotype is white eyes, what color eyes will individuals with the genotype from the unfilled-in column have?

	a. White eyes.
	b. Red eyes.
	c. Pink eyes.
	d. This cannot be determined from the information given.

.

Consider this Punnett Square. What do the boxes with two letters in each represent?

	a. The phenotype of two individuals' offspring.
	b. The sound Mendel made when he saw that his pea predictions were correct.
	c. The genotype of two individuals' offspring.
	d. The homozygous dominant genotype.

.

For an autosomal trait that displays typical Mendelian inheritance, you would expect a phenotypic ratio of 3:1 in offspring if the individuals that mated:

	a. Were each heterozygous for that trait.
	b. Were a heterozygous individual and a homozygous recessive individual.
	c. Were each homozygous recessive for that trait.
	d. Were made up (that is, the ratio is not possible).

.

For an autosomal trait that displays typical Mendelian inheritance: you would expect a phenotypic ratio of 1:1 in offspring if the individuals that mated:

	a. Were each heterozygous for that trait.
	b. Were a heterozygous individual and a homozygous recessive individual.
	c. Were each homozygous recessive for that trait.
	d. Were made up (that is, the ratio is not possible).

.

In the coral-reef Punk Blenny (a fish), purple head color is the dominant trait and magenta head color is the recessive. In which of the following cases would you know the fish's phenotype and genotype?

	a. It is the offspring of two purple-headed blennies and has a purple head.
	b. It is the offspring of a heterozygous mother and a homozygous recessive father.
	c. It is the offspring of a homozygous dominant mother and a homozygous recessive father.
	d. It has a purple head.

.

In the speckled YakkityYak bird, speckles and the song "don'ttalkback" are dominant traits while no speckles and the song "yakkityyakkity" are recessive traits. You cross a bird that is heterozygous for speckling and recessive for song with a bird that is heterozygous for all traits. What proportion of their offspring will sing "yakkityyakkity"?

	a. 1/16.
	b. 4/16.
	c. 6/16.
	d. 8/16.

.

Which of the following is a part of Mendel's Law of Segregation?

	a. Genes that affect more than one phenotype can be lethal.
	b. Each gamete only carries one allele for a particular trait.
	c. Genes that interact together may not assort independently.
	d. Recessive alleles for different traits are generally segregated from one another.

.

Which of these is NOT one of the reasons why Mendel would have had difficulty reaching his conclusions if he had studied height in humans instead of seed traits in pea plants?

	a. Humans have much longer generation times than pea plants.
	b. Height in humans is X-linked.
	c. Height in humans is polygenic.
	d. Humans cannot self-pollinate (or reproduce asexually as well as sexually).

.

Which of these statements is NOT true about Mendel's work:

	a. It was immediately recognized as a breakthrough by the scientific community.
	b. It involved the study of traits that were present in discrete, rather than continuous, forms.
	c. It provided evidence for the fact that offspring receive one copy of an allele from each parent.
	d. It provided evidence for the fact that alleles for different traits assort independently.

.

You know that tufted feet in chickens is a dominant trait. You have a rooster with tufted feet but don't know its genotype. So you perform a test cross to find out. That means that:

	a. You cross the rooster with a hen that you know is heterozygous recessive.
	b. You cross the rooster with a hen that you know is homozygous recessive.
	c. You cross the rooster with a hen of unknown parentage and tufted feet.
	d. You cross the rooster with another rooster (just to be safe).

.

A woman who is a carrier (heterozygous) for a recessive disease marries a man who is also a carrier. What is the likelihood that their child will be both healthy and not a carrier of the disease?

	a. 0 out of 4.
	b. 1 out of 4.
	c. 2 out of 4.
	d. 3 out of 4.

.

A woman who is a carrier (heterozygous) for a recessive disease marries a man who is also a carrier. What is the likelihood that their child will have the disease? (Note: carriers are healthy.)

	a. 0 out of 4.
	b. 1 out of 4.
	c. 2 out of 4.
	d. 3 out of 4.

.

Color-blindness is a sex-linked (also called X-linked) trait in humans. If a woman who is a carrier for color-blindness has children with a man who is colorblind, what is true about their sons?

	a. Any son they have would be colorblind.
	b. No son they have would be colorblind.
	c. They have a 75% chance of having a colorblind son.
	d. They have a 50% chance of having a colorblind son.

.

Color-blindness is a sex-linked (also called X-linked) trait in humans. If a woman who is a carrier for color-blindness has children with a man who is colorblind, what is true about their daughters?

	a. Any daughter they have would be colorblind.
	b. No daughter they have would be colorblind.
	c. Any daughter they have will either be a carrier or colorblind.
	d. They have a 25% chance of having a colorblind daughter.

.

Color-blindness is a sex-linked (also called X-linked) trait in humans. A woman who is a carrier for color-blindness has children with a man who is colorblind. Their son, Frank, marries a woman who is neither colorblind nor a carrier. Their daughter, Mariana, marries a man who is colorblind. Which of the following is a certainty (not just possible, but certain to be true)?

	a. All of Frank's sons will be colorblind.
	b. All of Frank's daughters will be carriers.
	c. None of Frank's sons will be colorblind.
	d. None of Mariana's daughters will be carriers.

.

In humans, the gene for curly hair is incompletely dominant to the gene for straight hair. What would be the phenotypic proportions of the children of two individuals that are heterozygous for the trait (have wavy hair)?

	a. 1/2 would have wavy hair and 1/2 would have straight hair.
	b. 1/4 would have curly hair, 1/4 would have wavy hair, and 1/2 would have straight hair.
	c. 1/4 would have curly hair, 1/2 would have wavy hair, and 1/4 would have straight hair.
	d. All children would have wavy hair.

.

In snapdragons, the gene for red petal color is incompletely dominant to the gene for white petal color (the phenotype for heterozygous individuals is pink petals). If a plant with pink petals was crossed with a plant with white petals, what would be the proportions of flower-petal types in their offspring?

	a. 1/4 would have red petals, 1/2 would have pink petals, and 1/4 would have white petals.
	b. 1/2 would have red petals and 1/2 would have white petals.
	c. 1/2 would have red petals and 1/2 would have pink petals.
	d. 1/2 would have pink petals and 1/2 would have white petals.

.

The Chromosome Theory of Inheritance (1903, proposed by Walter Sutton and Theodore Boveri):

	a. States that chromosomes recombine, thus explaining how genetic variation is inherited.
	b. Argues that chromosomes were elements entirely separate from genes which functioned as the basic unit of inheritance.
	c. States that chromosomes are physical elements of cells and contain genes, thus explaining how the process of inheritance occurs.
	d. Has been discredited by modern science.

.

Which of the following is NOT true of sex and sex-linked ("X-linked") traits in humans?

	a. Females are the heterogametic sex (the sex with two different chromosomes).
	b. Males cannot inherit such traits from their fathers.
	c. The expression of such traits is often more common in men than women.
	d. For individuals with two X chromosome, one copy is turned off in each cell.

.

Which of the following is true of Meiosis I?

	a. It results in the production of four haploid daughter cells.
	b. DNA is replicated during Metaphase.
	c. It allows for crossing over between homologous chromosomes.
	d. It is the most common type of cell division in eukaryotic cells.

.

Why is meiosis like democracy, according to Professor Stearns?

	a. Just as democracy was developed using a small group of individuals representing a larger group's interest, meiosis developed as a means of representing all stem-cell-level genes within gametes.
	b. Just as democracy developed to prevent political cheating, meiosis developed as a means to prevent meiotic drivers from increasing their genes' chance of being inherited.
	c. Just as democracy requires the consensus of a majority, meiosis requires the involvement of many intracellular components.
	d. Just as democracy involves plurality and multiplicity, meiosis ensures variation.

.

Your mother's blood type is A and your father's is B. Your blood type could be:

	a. A
	b. AB
	c. O
	d. Any of the above.

.

A male limpet chooses a very large female to be his mate because large females maintain better territories than small females. Which of these types of sexual selection is operating?

	a. Direct benefits.
	b. "Good genes."
	c. Runaway selection.
	d. "Sexy sons."

.

According to Rudyard Kipling's (very fictional) Just So Stories, the original Whale tried to eat a man, and in revenge the man stuck a grate in the whale's throat that prevented it from eating anything but very small fish-and that is why today's (baleen) whales, too, only eat tiny fish and crustaceans. Is this model more similar to Darwin's evolutionary model or Lamark's-and why?

	a. Darwin's, because it addresses the concept of evolutionary change occurring over many generations.
	b. Lamarck's, because it deals with the concept of offspring inheriting acquired characteristics.
	c. Darwin's, because it posits a specific hypothesis in order to explain an adaptation.
	d. Lamarck's, because it reflects the belief, common at that time, that evolution was a punishment inflicted on poorly-behaved species.

.

Flowers whose throats (nectaries) are too long for potential pollinators to reach their nectar are unlikely to be pollinated and therefore unlikely to reproduce. But if the nectarines are too short, animals can get their nectar without pollinating them. This is an example of what sort of selection?

	a. Disruptive.
	b. Stabilizing.
	c. Directional.
	d. Sexual.

.

This graph illustrates what type of selection? (The unbroken line represents the first generation; the dashed line represents later generations.

	a. Disruptive.
	b. Stabilizing.
	c. Directional.
	d. Sexual.

.

This graph illustrates which type of selection? (The unbroken line represents the first generation; the dashed line represents later generations.)

	a. Disruptive.
	b. Stabilizing.
	c. Directional.
	d. Sexual.

.

This graph illustrates which type of selection? (The unbroken line represents the first generation; the dashed line represents later generations.)

	a. Disruptive.
	b. Stabilizing.
	c. Directional.
	d. Sexual.

.

Which of following is NOT a prediction of Darwin's that has been supported by later discoveries and research?

	a. Darwin suspected that nature did not make leaps and that gaps in the fossil record would be filled, better supporting his argument for evolution; since then, transitional fossils have been found for many species.
	b. Darwin suspected that humans were animals (an unpopular idea at the time); since then, geneticists have found that the genomes of all living things include some genes that are shared across all kingdoms, proving our common ancestry.
	c. Darwin suspected that understanding embryonic development would illuminate evolution; since then, developmental biologists have discovered that much variation is caused by shared "master genes" which are turned on and off in different ways for different organisms.
	d. All of these are predictions of Darwin's.

.

Which type of sexual selection has the greatest potential to become at odds with natural selection?

	a. Direct benefits.
	b. "Good genes."
	c. Runaway selection.
	d. "Sexy sons."

.

You observe that mussels growing at Halibut Point State Park have much thicker shells than do mussels growing at the Plymouth pier. You also observe that there are many more predatory snails, which feed on mussels by drilling through their shells, present at Halibut Point than in Plymouth. Assuming that these differences are the result of selection, what type of selection is acting on the mussels at Halibut Point?

	a. Disruptive selection.
	b. Directional selection.
	c. Stabilizing selection.
	d. Sexual selection.

.

You observe that mussels growing at Halibut Point State Park have much thicker shells than do mussels growing at the Plymouth pier. You also observe that there are many more predatory snails, which feed on mussels by drilling through their shells, present at Halibut Point than in Plymouth. There is some doubt as to whether the differences you've observed are due to natural selection or are the result of phenotypic plasticity. Which of the following studies and results would convince you that the differences are due to natural selection?

	a. You survey five more mussel populations and find that in every case where there are predatory snails present, mussels' shells are much thicker.
	b. You raise offspring of mussels from both populations in the lab, without any predators present, and find that none of the offspring grow thick shells.
	c. You transfer adult snails from the Plymouth population to Halibut Point and find that they are eaten more than native mussels are.
	d. You raise offspring of mussels from both populations in the lab, without any predators present, and find that the offspring of Halibut-Point mussels grow thicker shells.

.

You observe that mussels growing at Halibut Point State Park have much thicker shells than do mussels growing at the Plymouth pier. You also observe that there are many more predatory snails, which feed on mussels by drilling through their shells, present at Halibut Point than in Plymouth. Which of the following studies and results would convince you that the differences are due to phenotypic plasticity?

	a. You survey five more mussel populations and find that in every case where there are predatory snails present, mussels' shells are much thicker.
	b. You raise offspring of mussels from both populations in the lab, without any predators present, and find that none of the offspring grow thick shells.
	c. You transfer adult snails from the Plymouth population to Halibut Point and find that they are eaten more than native mussels are.
	d. You raise offspring of mussels from Plymouth in the lab in the presence of snail predators and find that none of the offspring grow thick shells.

.

You observe that mussels growing at Halibut Point State Park have much thicker shells than do mussels growing at the Plymouth pier. You also observe that there are many more predatory snails, which feed on mussels by drilling through their shells, present at Halibut Point than in Plymouth. Why might greater shell-thickness in mussels be an induced rather than a constitutive (always present) trait?

	a. The cost of making a thicker shell is too great to be worth doing except in the presence of many snail predators.
	b. Selection can only act on induced traits.
	c. Constitutive shell thickness results in less genetic variability, leading to less variation in shell thickness for the next generation.
	d. Induced traits are expressed more strongly than constitutive traits, making the mussels less vulnerable to predators.

.

A group of researchers conducted genetic analyses of a population of turtles in upper New York State. They found that the turtles' gene frequencies and genotype ratios fluctuated considerably over several generations. Given what you know about the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, which of these is NOT a possible reason for their results?

	a. The turtle population is located in a pond that connects to a series of rivers, allowing many turtles to enter and leave the population each year.
	b. Among this population of turtles, males exhibit a preference for females with rougher shells.
	c. Researchers found a remarkably low level of genetic mutation across generations of these turtles.
	d. Slower-growing juvenile turtles are more regularly eaten by fish predators than faster-growing juveniles.

.

In cases where the assumptions of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium are met, why will a recessive trait that is present at a very low frequency remain in a population instead of disappearing over generations?

	a. Most recessive alleles are beneficial and so are therefore selected for.
	b. Mutations will lower the frequency of the dominant allele by changing it to the recessive, thus keeping the recessive trait in the population.
	c. The recessive allele is also present in heterozygous individuals, ensuring that the trait will reappear in further generations.
	d. Immigration of individuals with the recessive trait will increase its frequency in a population.

.

In general, across all species on the planet, which has been more important for the maintenance of genetic variation: selection or genetic drift?

	a. Genetic drift.
	b. Selection.
	c. Neither one is responsible for the majority of observed variation.
	d. Both are very important; usually it is impossible to tell which is more important.

.

What is a long-term evolutionary benefit for populations that are in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

	a. The population will maintain genetic variability, ensuring that there will be variation for any future selective forces to act on.
	b. Alleles present at high frequencies will remain present at high frequencies, ensuring that assortative mating can occur between individuals with similar phenotypes.
	c. The population will have reduced genetic variability, ensuring that deleterious traits will not increase in frequency.
	d. The population will by definition not be affected by natural selection, ensuring that they are less likely to be affected by mutations or disease.

.

Which of the following DOES NOT explain why genetic variation can be neutral?

	a. Some mutations in DNA end up coding for the same amino acid as the original code.
	b. Some amino acids are interchangeable within proteins; if one is substituted for the other, the protein remains functional.
	c. Some mutations are lethal and gametes with such mutations cannot develop to adulthood.
	d. Some areas of DNA are never transcribed.

.

Which of the following is an example of a population bottleneck and its effects?

	a. Only twelve people, one of whom has a rare allele, survive a crash-landing on an uninhabited island. Four hundred years later, a huge proportion of the island's inhabitants have this rare allele.
	b. A species of South American monkey is hunted to near extinction. One hundred years later, the monkeys' abundance has increased, but each individual is a near genetic twin of every other monkey.
	c. A population of guppies in a large lake becomes divided when an earthquake causes a barrier to form, splitting the lake in half. Many generations later, the guppies in one half are all bright-colored and those in the other are all dull-colored.
	d. Being heterozygous for sickle-cell anemia (healthy but a carrier) makes people less susceptible to malaria. In areas where the malaria is common, a higher number of people have the allele for sickle-cell anemia.

.

Which of the following is an example of genetic drift and the founder effect?

	a. Only twelve people, one of whom has a rare allele, survive a crash-landing on an uninhabited island. Four hundred years later, a huge proportion of the island's inhabitants have this rare allele.
	b. A species of South American monkey is hunted to near extinction. One hundred years later, the monkeys' abundance has increased, but each individual is a near genetic twin of every other monkey.
	c. A population of guppies in a large lake becomes divided when an earthquake causes a barrier to form, splitting the lake in half. Many generations later, the guppies in one half are all bright-colored and those in the other are all dull-colored.
	d. Being heterozygous for sickle-cell anemia (healthy but a carrier) makes people less susceptible to malaria. In areas where the malaria is common, a higher number of people have the allele for sickle-cell anemia.

.

Which of the following is NOT true of genetic drift?

	a. It contributes to evolutionary change.
	b. It can result in one allele representing 100% of the gene pool.
	c. It can prevent the maintenance of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
	d. It results in populations of better-adapted individuals.

.

Which of the following is true about mutation and recombination in sexually reproducing species?

	a. Mutation and recombination are different terms for the same occurrence.
	b. Mutations are often triggered by the recombination process and, in large populations, will then increase in frequency.
	c. The effects of mutation and recombination are generally considered to be at odds.
	d. In large populations, recombination can produce so much variation on its own that mutation is not necessary for hundreds of generations.

.

Which of the following is true about random mating?

	a. It appears to be quite common in nature.
	b. It includes the process called "assortative mating."
	c. It can prevent the maintenance of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
	d. It helps to ensure that gene frequencies remain constant over generations.

.

Why do haploid organisms undergoing selective pressures change their gene frequencies (over generations) much more quickly than diploid organisms?

	a. Haploid organisms produce more offspring than diploid organisms, meaning more individuals on whom selection can act are present.
	b. Diploid organisms generate less variation in each generation, leading to less genetic variability on which selection can act.
	c. Haploid organisms have only one copy of each gene, which allows selection to act directly without recessive alleles being hidden in dominant phenotypes.
	d. Diploid organisms have to reproduce sexually, which dilutes each individual's genomic material in the next generation.

.

Why is neutral evolution important for those interested in determining the time that has passed since species shared a common ancestor?

	a. The ratio of natural selection to neutral evolution can be identified and used to estimate evolutionary relationships.
	b. The number of neutral mutations that are fixed over a given period of time can be predicted, and these can be used to estimate evolutionary relationships.
	c. The number of times that genetic mechanisms were developed to repress certain types of mutations can be counted to estimate evolutionary relationships.
	d. Neutral evolution is an important factor in evolutionary change, but it cannot be used to estimate evolutionary relationships.

.

Why is sex (that is, being a sexually-reproducing rather than asexually-reproducing species) considered to be a benefit in terms of evolutionary forces and selection?

	a. Sexual reproduction, and especially recombination, provides much more genetic variation on which any or all selective pressures can act.
	b. Sexual reproduction dilutes the deleterious alleles of the heterogametic sex (the sex with two different sex chromosomes).
	c. Sexual reproduction is not considered to be beneficial, but once it is present in a species it is too hard to select against.
	d. Sexual reproduction leads to offspring being produced much more quickly, and the faster generation time leads to swifter evolutionary change.

.

A group whose members all share a common ancestor and includes all species that share that common ancestor is:

	a. Paraphyletic.
	b. Monophyletic.
	c. Polyphyletic.
	d. Hemiphyletic.

.

A group whose members all share a common ancestor but does not include all species that share that common ancestor is:

	a. Paraphyletic.
	b. Monophyletic.
	c. Polyphyletic.
	d. Hemiphyletic.

.

Choose the type of speciation pattern exhibited in this example: A group of lizards has a range from Arizona through all of Central America. While populations that are close to one another can interbreed, populations in Arizona cannot breed with those from Honduras.

	a. Allopatric speciation.
	b. Sympatric speciation.
	c. Parapatric speciation.
	d. Adaptive radiation.

.

Choose the type of speciation pattern exhibited in this example: Among a species of shrimp in a single reef, larger individuals exhibit a preference for one type of sponge host while smaller individuals exhibit a preference for another. Medium-sized shrimp (offspring of large and small shrimp) do not fit well into either sponge host and have a high mortality rate, and overall adults choose mates that are similar to them in size.

	a. Allopatric speciation.
	b. Sympatric speciation.
	c. Parapatric speciation.
	d. Adaptive radiation.

.

Choose the type of speciation pattern exhibited in this example: Tortoises in a single large population are separated by an earthquake that splits the area into several sections. Generations later, tortoises from one section cannot breed with those from another if they are brought into contact.

	a. Allopatric speciation.
	b. Sympatric speciation.
	c. Parapatric speciation.
	d. Adaptive radiation.

.

Choose the type of speciation pattern exhibited in this example: A freak storm transports a population of fish to a large, distant lake. The lake has many uninhabited ecological niches, and some individuals exploit each of those niches. Over many generations, many different fish species have evolved from this initial species.

	a. Allopatric speciation.
	b. Sympatric speciation.
	c. Parapatric speciation.
	d. Adaptive radiation.

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Name the type of isolation mechanism that is operating: Western deer-mice are unable to interact, or mate, with eastern deer-mice because the Mississippi River divides them.

	a. Temporal isolation.
	b. Gametic isolation.
	c. Behavioral isolation.
	d. Habitat isolation.

.

Name the type of isolation mechanism that is operating: Lollipop shrimp males would try to mate with candycane shrimp females, but the lollipop males' claws aren't the right shape to hold the candycane females during courtship/mating.

	a. Habitat isolation.
	b. Temporal isolation.
	c. Mechanical isolation.
	d. Gametic isolation.

.

Name the type of isolation mechanism that is operating: Brain corals and fan corals in the same reef both release gametes (sperm and eggs) into the water at night, but the two don't come into contact because brain corals release their gametes when the moon is full and fan corals release theirs when the moon is dark.

	a. Habitat isolation.
	b. Temporal isolation.
	c. Mechanical isolation.
	d. Zygotic mortality.

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Name the type of isolation mechanism that is operating: Bullfrog males will try to mate with just about anything, including rocks (this is true), but when they fertilize the eggs of tree-frog females, the developing tadpoles die before they reach adulthood.

	a. Mechanical isolation.
	b. Hybrid inviability.
	c. Behavioral isolation.
	d. Hybrid sterility.

.

The definition of a species is:

	a. A population of interbreeding organisms that does not or cannot breed with other populations, even given the opportunity to do so.
	b. A cluster or organisms that is phylogenetically distinct from other clusters of organisms.
	c. A cluster of organisms that is genetically distinct from other clusters of organisms.
	d. All of these are proposed, and to some degree acceptable, definitions.

.

Which is NOT true of cryptic species?

	a. They are organisms that are evolutionarily diverse but morphologically indistinguishable.
	b. They include many salamanders, ciliates, and the algae living in corals.
	c. Cryptic species of bacteria have interchangeable housekeeping genes (core groups of genes).
	d. They are extremely difficult to identify taxonomically without performing genetic analyses.

.

Consider this phylogenetic chart. Which group(s) give(s) live birth?

	a. Groups 1-4.
	b. Groups 2-4.
	c. Group 2.
	d. Group 1.

.

Consider this phylogenetic chart. Which group(s) has/have an aquatic lifestyle, live birth, and no fins?

	a. Groups 1 and 2.
	b. Group 2.
	c. Groups 2-4.
	d. Group 1.

.

Consider this phylogenetic chart. Which traits are possessed by members of group 3? (Make sure you choose the answer that lists all traits possessed by this group.)

	a. Aquatic lifestyle and live birth.
	b. Aquatic lifestyle and heterodonty (different types of teeth).
	c. Aquatic lifestyle, live birth, fins, and a third eye.
	d. Aquatic lifestyle, live birth, and fins.

.

For groups 3 and 4, what is the synapomorphy?

	a. Live birth.
	b. Fins.
	c. Aquatic lifestyle.
	d. Heteredonty.

.

Having a forelimb with a humerus, radius, and ulna is a derived trait shared by all tetrapods. This is also known as a(n):

	a. Analogy.
	b. Synapomorphy.
	c. Homoplasy.
	d. Polyphyly.

.

Mitochondria, the organelles within eukaryotic cells, contain their own DNA. How does the Endosymbiotic Theory help explain this?

	a. The Endosymbiotic Theory states that all organelles originally contained their own DNA but that this trait was lost in less complex organelles; since mitochondria are complex, this explains why they still have their own DNA.
	b. The Endosymbiotic Theory addresses the mutation of bacterial cells and so cannot explain this phenomenon.
	c. The Endosymbiotic Theory states that viral DNA is often incorporated into host cells during infection; the DNA in mitochondria is derived from this incorporation.
	d. The Endosymbiotic Theory states that eukaryotic cells came from prokaryotic cells that ingested other, independent cells that became the new cell's organelles; if mitochondria were once independent cells, they would have needed their own DNA.

.

Spines and thorns both defend plants from attack and look quite similar. However, spines are derived from leaves and thorns are derived from stems; the two traits developed through different evolutionary processes. These traits are an example of a:

	a. Hyostyly.
	b. Synapomorphy.
	c. Homoplasy.
	d. Polyphyly.

.

The hierarchical taxonomic system and binomial nomenclature were first developed by:

	a. Aristotle.
	b. Carl Linnaeus.
	c. Charles Darwin.
	d. Robert Whittaker.

.

The homeobox gene complex in fruit flies and the HOX complex in humans:

	a. Control the same set of aspects of development and are an example of molecular homology.
	b. Control similar behavioral traits and represent an example of convergence.
	c. Are chromosomal formations that have been identified as homoplasies.
	d. Control poikilothermy and homeothermy, respectively, and represent an early point of divergence between the groups.

.

The Miller-Urey experiment was conducted to test the hypothesis that the Earth's first organic molecules:

	a. Were rained down from outer space within meteorites.
	b. Were synthesized from inorganic molecules in the early atmosphere.
	c. Were synthesized through the processes taking place and chemicals formed in deep-sea hydrothermal vents.
	d. Were synthesized through the processes taking place and chemicals formed in geysers.

.

Which is NOT true of members of the Kingdom Archaea?

	a. a) They were classified as Bacteria until as recently as the late 1970s.
	b. b) They may be more closely related to Eukaryotes than to Bacteria.
	c. c) They are not considered part of a true kingdom because their RNA sequences are so similar to those of Bacteria.
	d. d) They include individuals that can thrive at near-boiling temperatures.

.

Which of the following kingdoms is not monophyletic?

	a. Archea.
	b. Animalia.
	c. Protista.
	d. Fungi.

.

If researchers want to determine the evolutionary relationships among bacterial groups, they tend to compare the bacteria’s ribosomal sequences. Why are ribosomes so useful when looking for evolutionary relationships?

	a. a) Ribosomes contain DNA, and DNA sequences are then used to identify evolutionary relationships.
	b. b) Ribosomes are necessary for the transcription and translation of DNA, and so they do not change rapidly; thus, slight differences can be compared across many bacterial groups.
	c. c) Ribosomes in bacteria have been shown to affect the rate at which the bacteria reproduce, and by modeling this rate, researchers can determine their degree of evolutionary change over time.
	d. d) Ribosomes are only present in more recently evolved groups of bacteria, while more ancient groups have a primitive pseudo-ribosome-like structure; this helps identify the evolutionary age of the bacterial species.

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Why is the concept of parsimony important to cladistics and phylogeny?

	a. Parsimony, the concept that mutations are costly, is used to predict and estimate the evolutionary distant among different clades.
	b. Parsimony, the concept that there are as few species as possible in any one community, helps to determine the phylogenetic relationships among similar species in different regions.
	c. Parsimony, the concept that "genes are cheap," helps predict the time to loss of genetic variation in species and thus is used to estimate phylogenetic relationships.
	d. Parsimony, the concept that the fewest number of evolutionary steps is the most likely, is used to construct phylogenetic trees.

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A population whose size increases for a while and then levels off, showing an "S-shaped" growth curve, is exhibiting what type of growth?

	a. Exponential.
	b. Planktotrophic.
	c. Logistic.
	d. None of the above.

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In the deep sea, near hydrothermal vents that spew what seem like toxic chemicals, life still miraculously exists: it is composed of bacteria that are able to convert the hydrogen sulfide from the vents into food through the process of chemosynthesis. Other marine animals like snails, shrimp, and mussels eat the bacteria. They in turn are eaten by octopuses, fish, and crabs. Some of the chemosynthetic bacteria live inside of giant clams; they provide the clams with food, and the clams provide them with necessary elements like nitrogen (and with protection from snails, shrimp, and mussels). In this community, which organisms are the primary producers?

	a. Giant clams.
	b. Crabs and fish.
	c. Snails.
	d. Bacteria.

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In the deep sea, near hydrothermal vents that spew what seem like toxic chemicals, life still miraculously exists: it is composed of bacteria that are able to convert the hydrogen sulfide from the vents into food through the process of chemosynthesis. Other marine animals like snails, shrimp, and musselsx eat the bacteria. They in turn are eaten by octopuses, fish, and crabs. Some of the chemosynthetic bacteria live inside of giant clams; they provide the clams with food, and the clams provide them with necessary elements like nitrogen (and with protection from snails, shrimp, and mussels). What kind of relationship do the giant clams and the chemosynthetic bacteria have?

	a. A parasitic symbiosis.
	b. A competitive interaction.
	c. A mutualistic symbiosis.
	d. A commensal symbiosis.

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In the deep sea, near hydrothermal vents that spew what seem like toxic chemicals, life still miraculously exists: it is composed of bacteria that are able to convert the hydrogen sulfide from the vents into food through the process of chemosynthesis. Other marine animals like snails, shrimp, and mussels eat the bacteria. They in turn are eaten by octopuses, fish, and crabs. Some of the chemosynthetic bacteria live inside of giant clams; they provide the clams with food, and the clams provide them with necessary elements like nitrogen (and with protection from snails, shrimp, and mussels). Which of the following interactions that you've learned about during this course is an example of the same sort of relationship as that of the giant clam and bacteria?

	a. A Galapagos-island tortoise and the cactus it eats.
	b. A virus and its host.
	c. Darwin and his finches.
	d. A coral and its zooxanthellae (algae).

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The abundance of Imaginary Owls is influenced by their fox predators, their lemming prey, and the availability of their nesting sites. You would expect populations of this species to exhibit:

	a. Exponential growth.
	b. Logistic growth.
	c. Serious paranoia.
	d. Unstable population sizes.

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The abundance of Imaginary Owls is influenced by their fox predators, their lemming prey, and the availability of their nesting sites. Assuming that their population is density-dependent, what you expect to happen to their carrying capacity if there were a sudden, large increase in the lemming population?

	a. The carrying capacity would increase.
	b. The carrying capacity would decrease.
	c. The carrying capacity would not change.
	d. With the limitation on prey removed, this population would no longer have a carrying capacity.

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Which is NOT true of "pioneer" species in succession communities?

	a. They are often mosses or lichens.
	b. They are usually opportunists, able to colonize areas quickly.
	c. They will usually not be a part of climax communities.
	d. They consist of a wide variety and diversity of species.

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Population A consists of approximately the same number of individuals in each age group. In population B, on the other hand, the vast majority of individuals are juveniles or individuals just reaching breeding age. Which of the following is true of population A?

	a. It will decline rapidly.
	b. It will decline slowly.
	c. It will remain stable.
	d. It will expand rapidly.

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Population A consists of approximately the same number of individuals in each age group. In population B, on the other hand, the vast majority of individuals are juveniles or individuals just reaching breeding age. Which of the following is true of population B?

	a. It will decline rapidly.
	b. It will decline slowly.
	c. It will remain stable.
	d. It will expand rapidly.

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Which of these gives an example of a habitat that would be the basis for primary succession and a habitat that would be the basis for secondary succession?

	a. Primary: a patch of bare rock; secondary: an area that has been cleared for mining.
	b. Primary: a scrubland destroyed by an earthquake; secondary: a forest whose trees have been cut down.
	c. Primary: a woodland after a forest fire; secondary: a scrubland destroyed by an earthquake.
	d. Primary: a sand dune; secondary: a lava deposit.

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Which of these is NOT an example of top-down control on a community?

	a. When killer whales are present in an area, the urchins that their otter prey eat are more abundant and devour kelp beds.
	b. When a voracious starfish predator is removed from a tidepool, some of its prey species disappear while others' abundance increases hugely.
	c. When raised alone, black-sided salamanders and yellow-sided salamanders each are present in lower densities than when raised together.
	d. In the presence of a fish predator, small prey species are more abundant, but when the fish is removed large prey species are more abundant.

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Which of these observations/experiments does NOT suggest the occurrence of inter-specific competition between Species A and B?

	a. The removal of Species A leads to an increase in the density, number of offspring, and growth rate of Species B.
	b. Species A is present in the high intertidal area of a beach and Species B occupies the same niche in the lower intertidal.
	c. When raised alone, Species A and Species B are each present in lower densities than when raised together.
	d. When Species A is removed from an area, the range of Species B within that area increases.

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Your zoo has the facilities to set up an exhibit for one new species. You have relatively free reign over what species you choose, but you are told to choose a species with a relatively small range. In what area/region would you be more likely to find such a species?

	a. Nearer to the poles than the equator.
	b. Nearer to the equator than the poles.
	c. Nearer to a large body of water.
	d. On an island rather than the mainland.

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A marine organism that is benthic and needs to be very deep below the surface would be found in:

	a. The intertidal zone.
	b. The photic zone.
	c. The abyssal zone.
	d. The neritic zone.

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A marine organism that photosynthesizes would want to be in:

	a. The abyssal zone.
	b. The aphotic zone.
	c. The bathypelagic zone.
	d. The neritic zone.

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A tuna, which swims strongly in the open ocean, is a member of the:

	a. Benthic community.
	b. Planktonic community.
	c. Pelagic community.
	d. Estuarine community.

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Aquaculture, the farming of fish for human consumption, is a field of growing interest, but it takes time, money, and the right diet to raise fish in captivity and get them to the size where people can eat them. Based on what you know about the flow of energy across trophic levels (over a food chain), what type of fish would be the best (most efficient in terms of energy expended) to farm?

	a. Salmon, which prey on smaller fish that in turn prey on tiny animals in the plankton.
	b. Tilapia, which eat insect larvae, shellfish, and tiny animals in the plankton.
	c. Tuna, which eat fish, squid, and other swimming animals that in turn eat smaller animals.
	d. Catfish, which eat seaweed and other algae that cover the water bottom.

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Given what you know about species interactions and distributions, which of these is correct? You would expect to see lower species diversity:

	a. In a community without keystone predators than one with keystone predators.
	b. On a coral reef than in the open ocean.
	c. In the tropics than in the tundra.
	d. In the grasslands than in the desert.

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Identify which biogeochemical cycle could be disrupted by the following occurrence: Overgrazing leading to desertification (desert-like habitat).

	a. Phosphorous cycle.
	b. Nitrogen cycle.
	c. Hydrologic cycle.
	d. Carbon cycle.

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Identify which biogeochemical cycle could be disrupted by the following occurrence: The run-off of detergents.

	a. Phosphorous cycle.
	b. Nitrogen cycle.
	c. Hydrologic cycle.
	d. Carbon cycle.

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In the deep sea, near hydrothermal vents that spew what seem like toxic chemicals, life still miraculously exists: it is composed of bacteria that are able to convert the hydrogen sulfide from the vents into food through the process of chemosynthesis. Other marine animals like snails, shrimp, and mussels eat the bacteria. They in turn are eaten by octopuses, fish, and crabs. Some of the chemosynthetic bacteria live inside of giant clams; they provide the clams with food, and the clams provide them with necessary elements like nitrogen (and with protection from snails, shrimp, and mussels). Based on what you know about the flow of energy, which animals would be more abundant, the snails or the octopuses, and why?

	a. The octopuses, because they would have more types of species to eat.
	b. The snails, because they are present at a higher trophic level.
	c. The octopuses, because they expend less energy in getting what they need to eat than snails do.
	d. The snails, because energy is lost at each trophic level and they are lower in the food chain.

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What are the two primary forces determining the distributions of biomes on earth?

	a. Temperature and precipitation.
	b. Primary productivity and aridity (dryness).
	c. Temperature and primary productivity.
	d. Biodiversity and precipitation.

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Where would you most likely expect to see a desert form?

	a. On the leeward side of a large mountain range (a rain shadow).
	b. On the windward side of a large mountain range.
	c. Near a large body of salt water.
	d. At approximately 0 degrees latitude (the equator).

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Which of these is NOT true of trophic cascades?

	a. They are generally highly complex.
	b. They can affect the behavior of organisms within them.
	c. They can affect the habitat preference of organisms within them.
	d. They have been shown to have little effect on the rate of energy flow.

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Why is upwelling an important factor in the maintenance of marine ecosystems?

	a. It forces species living in the deep sea to migrate to the surface, positively affecting the food chains near the surface.
	b. It brings up nutrients from cold, deep water that are necessary for the growth and survival of species.
	c. It prevents detritus that settles on the floor of the ocean from suffocating the organisms that live there.
	d. It creates localized whirlpools that re-oxygenate marine waters.

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