1
A group of monarch butterflies in the southwest are displaying odd behavior: they are no longer following their usual migration path, and their movements are disoriented. Which of the following best explains their behavior?
Choose one answer.
a. An experiment on the butterflies shows that they are unable to detect yellow-green or blue colors.
b. A locally sprayed pesticide has covered up the olfactory signals in this region.
c. A recent chemical fire has altered the light spectrum in this region, blocking UV rays.
d. An experiment on the butterflies shows that they are unable to respond to vibrations.
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Question 2
A species of ground squirrel is found in many areas of the United States along the eastern side of the Rocky Mountains. One population, however, is found to the west of the Rockies. Which of these potential explanations for the squirrels’ distribution is an example of the dispersal hypothesis in zoogeography?
Choose one answer.
a. The squirrels were present long ago on both sides of the mountains but geographic shifts separated them, leaving one population “stranded” on the western side.
b. The squirrels were brought across the geographic boundary of the Rockies by anthropogenic (human) influences and established themselves in a western habitat.
c. The squirrels can travel in and across the Rockies near the area in which the western population is found, and some individuals happened to settle in the western habitat.
d. The squirrels were historically present only on the western side, but once anthropogenic (human) influences brought them over they flourished on the eastern side.
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Question 3
A species of ground squirrel is found in many areas of the United States along the eastern side of the Rocky Mountains. One population, however, is found to the west of the Rockies. What scientific evidence would support the vicariance hypothesis explaining their distribution?
Choose one answer.
a. There should be very high genetic divergence between the eastern and western populations of squirrels, suggesting long-term genetic isolation.
b. There should be very little genetic divergence between the eastern and western populations of squirrels, suggesting incomplete genetic isolation.
c. The mating calls of western populations should differ from those of eastern populations.
d. Mark-and-recapture studies should find squirrels from either population having moved to areas within the Rockies.
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Question 4
Because arthropods are so abundant, they sometimes face the difficulty of intraspecific (within-species) competition for resources. Which of these adaptations would be most likely to reduce that problem?
Choose one answer.
a. Exoskeleton extensions, like horns, designed for fighting
b. A complex life cycle (i.e., one that involves metamorphosis)
c. A complex nervous system
d. A highly efficient digestive system
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Question 5
Choose the statement that is most appropriate to the particular group. A flatworm might tell a jellyfish:
Choose one answer.
a. “There is no excuse for digestive inefficiency, and, frankly, the singe-sac body plan is just sloppy.”
b. “Say all you want about your new-fangled traits, but nothing succeeds like cellular organization and a good use of water flow.”
c. “Your radial symmetry may be cute, but I am a-head of you! (Get it? Get it?)”
d. “I am stung by your words! And, I will sting you, too!”
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Question 6
Choose the statement that is most appropriate to the particular group. A nematode might say:
Choose one answer.
a. “There is no excuse for digestive inefficiency, and, frankly, the singe-sac body plan is just sloppy.”
b. “Say all you want about your new-fangled traits, but nothing succeeds like cellular organization and a good use of water flow.”
c. “Your radial symmetry may be cute, but I am a-head of you! (Get it? Get it?)”
d. “I am stung by your words! And, I will sting you, too!”
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Question 7
Choose the statement that is most appropriate to the particular group. A sponge might say:
Choose one answer.
a. “There is no excuse for digestive inefficiency, and, frankly, the singe-sac body plan is just sloppy.”
b. “Say all you want about your new-fangled traits, but nothing succeeds like cellular organization and a good use of water flow.”
c. “Your radial symmetry may be cute, but I am a-head of you! (Get it? Get it?)”
d. “I am stung by your words! And, I will sting you, too!”
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Question 8
Consider the following cladogram. What is a derived characteristic that ONLY groups 3 and 4 share?
Choose one answer.
a. An aquatic lifestyle
b. Limbs that have become fins
c. Giving life birth
d. Heterodont (having different kinds of teeth)
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Question 9
Consider the following cladogram. Which groups are more closely related (that is, which groups diverged from one another most recently)?
Choose one answer.
a. 3 and 4
b. 1 and 4
c. 2 and 3
d. 2 and 4
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Question 10
During which eon were the oldest rocks formed?
Choose one answer.
a. Phanerozoic
b. Archaean
c. Mesozoic
d. Proterozoic
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Question 11
Fill in the blank. You find an ancient shark’s tooth on a beach. This is an example of a ______________.
Choose one answer.
a. compression fossil
b. cast
c. trace fossil
d. body fossil
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Question 12
For which class of mollusks would you need to say, “Your hearts are in the right places”?
Choose one answer.
a. Chitons (Polyplacophora)
b. Bivalves
c. Gastropods
d. Cephalopods
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Question 13
Identify the organism from its description. As adults, these organisms have long bodies with segmented muscles and a notochord running from head to tail; they filter food in through their mouths.
Choose one answer.
a. Hemichordates
b. Urochordates
c. Cephalochordates
d. Vertebrates
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Question 14
Identify the organism from its description. As adults, these organisms look like a cup or tunic and have one incurrent and one excurrent siphon.
Choose one answer.
a. Hemichordates
b. Urochordates
c. Cephalochordates
d. Vertebrates
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Question 15
Identify the organism from its description. These organisms, whose larvae resemble those of echinoderms, are called “acorn worms.”
Choose one answer.
a. Hemichordates
b. Urochordates
c. Cephalochordates
d. Vertebrates
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Question 16
Identify the type of eye from its description. In this eye, a liquid-filled bubble increases the clarity and focus of the image without losing image brightness.
Choose one answer.
a. Pinhole eye
b. Pit (or cup) eye
c. Lens eye
d. Vesicular eye
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Question 17
Identify the type of eye from its description. This eye can create a focused image, but it cannot adjust the focus point, and the sharpness of the image is made at the expense of brightness.
Choose one answer.
a. Pinhole eye
b. Pit (or cup) eye
c. Lens eye
d. Vesicular eye
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Question 18
If you wanted to learn more about the behaviors of an extinct species, what kind of fossil would you want?
Choose one answer.
a. A mold fossil
b. A petrifaction fossil
c. A trace fossil
d. None of the above
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Question 19
If you were a parasitic organism that lived in the intestine of your host, which of these features would be an important adaptation for you?
Choose one answer.
a. Complex cephalization
b. A strong tegument (outer layer or skin)
c. A well-developed digestive system
d. Specialized segmentation
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Question 20
In which group has there been considerable modification and/or fusion of skull bones to allow for brain expansion?
Choose one answer.
a. Mammals
b. Birds
c. Amphibians
d. Both A and B
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Question 21
In which of the following ways are monotremes more similar to reptiles than to other mammals?
Choose one answer.
a. Their limbs are held lateral to the body.
b. They lay eggs.
c. They do not produce milk.
d. Both A and B
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Question 22
Sometimes sheep are the secondary hosts of a parasitic flatworm. These flatworms have a sucker for a mouth and live in the sheep’s liver. What class of flatworm would they most likely belong to?
Choose one answer.
a. Turbellaria
b. Cestoda
c. Trematoda
d. Nematoda
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Question 23
The members of which of these animal phyla are exclusively marine?
Choose one answer.
a. Nematoda
b. Platyhelminthes
c. Echinodermata
d. Chordata
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Question 24
Trichinosis and elephantiasis are caused by which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. Nematodes
b. Cestodes
c. Trematodes
d. Turbellarians
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Question 25
What is a characteristic of sponges that is NOT shared by more derived (later-evolved) animal groups?
Choose one answer.
a. The ability to re-form from fragmented cells
b. The ability to reproduce asexually
c. Asymmetrical body shape
d. A lack of cephalization
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Question 26
What is one reason why annelids and mollusks are thought to share a common ancestor?
Choose one answer.
a. Many primitive mollusks are segmented like annelids.
b. Chitons and polychaetes share many similar features.
c. The larvae of some annelids and mollusks are very similar.
d. Members of both phyla are primarily hermaphroditic.
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Question 27
What is the difference between a pseudocoelomate and a coelomate?
Choose one answer.
a. Coelomates have body cavities while pseudocoelomates do not.
b. In pseudocoelomates the body cavity is formed when the organism is an adult, while in coelomates it is formed during a pre-adult stage.
c. In coelomates the body cavity is lined with mesodermal cells, while in pseudocoelomates the cavity is not formed by mesoderm.
d. In pseudocoelomates the body cavity and gut are the same, while in coelomates these are different.
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Question 28
What major insight did the invention of the microscope provide to zoologists?
Choose one answer.
a. It provided the basis for the Cell Theory.
b. It contradicted the argument for spontaneous generation.
c. It allowed zoologists to see objects which were invisible to the naked eye.
d. Both A and C
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Question 29
Which answer is FALSE in terms of both sponges (Porifera) and cnidarians?
Choose one answer.
a. Both have a sac-like body plan.
b. Both lack true tissues.
c. Both are capable of sexual and asexual reproduction.
d. All of the above
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Question 30
Which is FALSE in regards to corals?
Choose one answer.
a. They belong to the class Anthozoa, along with anemones.
b. They experienced a mass extinction near the end of the Devonian.
c. They are the only group of cnidarians to lack cnidocytes.
d. They exist solely in a polyp form, without a medusa stage.
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Question 31
Which of the following animals have to leave their adult habitat in order to lay their eggs?
Choose one answer.
a. Lobe-finned fishes and amphibians
b. Amphibians and sea turtles
c. Lobe-finned fishes and sea turtles
d. Hagfish and lobe-finned fishes
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Question 32
Which of the following facts best provides support for the hypothesis that feathers initially developed as a means of insulation?
Choose one answer.
a. Fossils have been found of feathered dinosaurs that could not fly.
b. Emus, ostriches, and other flightless birds have feathers.
c. Feathers have been shown to be important in mating rituals.
d. Pterosaurs (dinosaurs that flew) did not have feathers.
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Question 33
Which of the following facts best supports the hypothesis that marsupials were outcompeted by placental mammals?
Choose one answer.
a. The earliest marsupial fossils are similar to those of North American opossums.
b. The young of placental mammals are less vulnerable at birth than the young of marsupials.
c. The fossil record shows evidence of a variety of marsupial saber-toothed “cats” and “wolves” in South America and Australia.
d. Australia, which has few native placental mammals, is the only continent with many extant marsupial species.
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Question 34
Which of the following fossils is an example of a mold?
Choose one answer.
a. An ancient skull fragment
b. A piece of petrified wood
c. The impression of a shell in ancient rock
d. The burrow of an ancient worm
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Question 35
Which of the following has NOT been lost or greatly reduced in the classes of parasitic flatworms?
Choose one answer.
a. A head that contains many sensory organs
b. The reproductive system
c. The digestive system
d. The nervous system
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Question 36
Which of the following is an example of a trace fossil?
Choose one answer.
a. An ancient skull fragment
b. A piece of petrified wood
c. The impression of a shell in ancient rock
d. The burrow of an ancient worm
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Question 37
Which of the following is FALSE in regards to arthropod eyes?
Choose one answer.
a. The more ommatidia they have, the better the resolution of the image they see.
b. They have essentially the same shape as vertebrate eyes but with the position of photoreceptors reversed.
c. The resolution of images in even the best arthropod eyes is considerably worse than that of vertebrates like humans.
d. The detection of movement, because of the “flicker effect,” is much better in arthropod eyes than vertebrate eyes.
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Question 38
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of adult echinoderms?
Choose one answer.
a. Bilateral symmetry
b. A water vascular system
c. Radial symmetry
d. Tube feet
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Question 39
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic that animals and plants share?
Choose one answer.
a. Both demonstrate the evolution of multicellularity.
b. Both demonstrate tremendous cell-type diversity.
c. Both demonstrate the evolution of organisms from water to land.
d. Both demonstrate the evolution of organisms from land back to water.
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Question 40
Which of the following is TRUE of Platyhelminthes (flatworms) and nematodes (roundworms)?
Choose one answer.
a. They are both triploblastic (have three tissue layers).
b. They both have tube-within-a-tube body plans.
c. Both groups contain parasitic species.
d. Both A and C are true of both groups.
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Question 41
Which of the following types of body plans generally results in cephalization (the concentration of sensory organs in a head area)?
Choose one answer.
a. Radial symmetry
b. Biradial symmetry
c. The sac-like body plan
d. Bilateral symmetry
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Question 42
Which of these is FALSE in regards to cephalopod eyes vs. vertebrate eyes?
Choose one answer.
a. In cephalopods the photosensitive cells point outwards, while in vertebrates they point backwards.
b. Vertebrate eyes have a blind-spot, while cephalopod eyes do not.
c. Both cephalopods and vertebrates have ciliar muscles that move the lens back and forth to focus.
d. Both cephalopods and vertebrates use the light-sensitive molecule opsin.
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Question 43
Which of these is FALSE in regards to skulls and skull evolution?
Choose one answer.
a. By fixing the placement of eyes in eye sockets, they allow for stereoscopic vision.
b. The group of craniates that includes mammals is referred to as the “synapsids.”
c. More primitive craniates groups tend to have simplified skulls, while more derived groups’ skulls are characterized by greater complexity and number of bones.
d. Certain types of organisms, such as carnivores and rodents, have developed typical skull traits that identify them.
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Question 44
Which of these is FALSE in regards to the skin of amniotes?
Choose one answer.
a. The skin of amniotes like reptiles is made up of scales called odontodes, tooth-like scales also found in vertebrate ancestors.
b. Its specific adaptations and traits allowed for the evolution of modified structures, such as hair and feathers.
c. The evolution of hair and feathers came about as a means of maintaining heat.
d. It contains a layer of cells filled with keratin that protect these organisms from water loss.
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Question 45
Which of these is TRUE of cnidarians and ctenophores?
Choose one answer.
a. They are both diploblastic (have two tissue layers).
b. They both have stinging cells (cnidocytes).
c. They both have rows of fused cilia.
d. None of the above is true of both groups.
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Question 46
Why are there so many fewer fossils of early amniotic eggs than there are of early amniotes’ bodies or of later amniotic eggs?
Choose one answer.
a. There were so many fewer amniotes early in their evolution that it is merely an artifact of these organisms’ rarity.
b. The eggs of early amniotes were much less mineralized than later eggs, making them less likely to become fossilized.
c. Early amniotes produced many fewer eggs than later amniotes.
d. Early amniotes still laid eggs near water, and hydrogeological changes destroyed those fossils.
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Question 47
Why are there so many more animal fossils from the Phanerozoic eon than any other eon?
Choose one answer.
a. This is the eon during which animals evolved.
b. This is the eon during which animals evolved hard body parts (i.e. hard shells).
c. The geological shifts during this eon created the conditions for more compression fossils.
d. It is the eon during which complex life forms first developed.
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Question 48
Why do the eyes of most animal species only register a small portion of the spectrum of light?
Choose one answer.
a. Because of the evolutionary constraints on the development of photoreceptors in the eye
b. Because the shape and thickness of lenses filters out a portion of the spectrum before it reaches the photoreceptors
c. Because eyes first evolved in water-dwelling animals and water filters out most of the spectrum
d. Because the “blind spot” (the place where the optic nerve passes through the retina) constrains the placement of color-sensitive photoreceptors
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Question 49
Why might segmentation be important in the evolution of diverse morphologies?
Choose one answer.
a. It allows for the development of specialized structures within particular segments.
b. It only occurs in complex organisms.
c. It is correlated with greater genetic variation.
d. It allows for the development of asexual reproduction by budding and fission.
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Question 50
Which of these scientists is considered to be one of the most important researchers in the field of “modern zoology”?
Choose one answer.
a. Thomas Henry Huxley
b. Albertus Magnus
c. Su Song
d. Shen Kuo
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Question 51
A hive of bees are not behaving properly: many larvae are being reared as queens, and workers are exhibiting signs of ovarian development. What might explain this?
Choose one answer.
a. The workers cannot respond to trail pheromone.
b. The queen is not producing sex-attractant pheromone.
c. The drones are not producing sex-attractant pheromone.
d. The queen is not producing mandibular pheromone.
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Question 52
According to what you know about circulatory systems, which of the following organisms should have the highest blood pressure?
Choose one answer.
a. Lobster
b. Snail
c. Anemone
d. Mouse
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Question 53
Biomagnification is the process by which pollutants are taken in by organisms and become more prevalent and concentrated as one goes up the trophic levels. If you had to rely on a food source from an area contaminated by a pollutant, what type of organism would you want to eat in order to reduce your own exposure to the compound?
Choose one answer.
a. A vertebrate
b. A primary consumer
c. A secondary consumer
d. A primary producer
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Question 54
Choose the type of speciation pattern exhibited in the following example: Two species of forest berry plants hybridize, and their offspring are not only fertile but are better adapted to the forest conditions.
Choose one answer.
a. Allopatric speciation
b. Sympatric speciation
c. Parapatric speciation
d. Adaptive radiation
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Question 55
Fill in the blank. Foramen of Panizza is found in ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. Crocodiles
b. Mammals
c. Birds
d. Fishes
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Question 56
Fill in the blank. In a species of animal, fertilization is external and the fertilized eggs develop in the environment without any parental care. This type of reproductive method is referred to as being ______________.
Choose one answer.
a. ovoviviparous
b. viviparous
c. oviparous
d. monecious
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Question 57
Fill in the blank. The lateral lines of fish are a kind of ______________.
Choose one answer.
a. chemoreceptor
b. electromagnetic receptor
c. mechanoreceptor
d. thermoreceptor
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Question 58
Given what you know about community and ecosystem dynamics, where would you expect to see lower species diversity?
Choose one answer.
a. Away from the equator rather than near the equator
b. On a coral reef than in the open ocean
c. In the tropics than in the tundra
d. In the grasslands than in the desert
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Question 59
Goose barnacles and acorn barnacles live in the same inter-tidal areas. Which of the following observations/experiments DOES NOT suggest that goose barnacles and acorn barnacles engage in interspecific competition?
Choose one answer.
a. The removal of goose barnacles from an area leads to an increase in the density, number of offspring, and growth rate of acorn barnacles.
b. Acorn barnacles are present in the high intertidal area of a beach and goose barnacles occupy the same niche in the lower intertidal.
c. When raised alone, goose and acorn barnacles are each present in lower densities than when raised together.
d. When goose barnacles are removed from an area, the range of acorn barnacles within that area increases.
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Question 60
Growing rice in paddies and raising cattle increases the production of which of the following greenhouse gases?
Choose one answer.
a. Carbon dioxide
b. Nitrous oxide
c. Methane
d. Hydroflourocarbons
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Question 61
Identify the type of migrants by their behavior in the following statement: Certain kinds of eels will travel up steep cliff-side waterfalls in order to arrive in calm, predator-free waters.
Choose one answer.
a. Altitudinal migrants
b. Reproductive migrants
c. Removal migrants
d. Irruptive migrants
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Question 62
Identify the type of migrants by their behavior in the following statement: When young males of many herd-mammal species grow up, there are already too many reproductive males present in a herd, so they travel in groups until they find new herds to join.
Choose one answer.
a. Altitudinal migrants
b. Reproductive migrants
c. Removal migrants
d. Irruptive migrants
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Question 63
If you were willing to expend energy but conserve water, which of these would you excrete?
Choose one answer.
a. Uric acid
b. Ammonia
c. Urea
d. Urine
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Question 64
In a species of animal, fertilization is external and the fertilized eggs develop in the environment without any parental care. Knowing this, what can you know for certain about this species?
Choose one answer.
a. It is not terrestrial.
b. It is not hermaphroditic.
c. It is not a fish.
d. It is not dioecious.
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Question 65
In terms of diet, what types of mammals are considered to have been the earliest species?
Choose one answer.
a. Small carnivores
b. Small colon fermentors
c. Small cecum fermentors
d. Small ruminants
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Question 66
In this graph of population growth, what does the dashed line represent?
Choose one answer.
a. The population’s carrying capacity
b. The population’s period of exponential growth
c. The population’s point of fastest growth
d. The population’s point of extinction
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Question 67
In what way has the crocodile “solved” the problem of maintaining pressure when forcing blood to 1) its tissues and 2) its gas-exchange organ?
Choose one answer.
a. It has separate hearts, which pump blood to either its gas-exchange organ or to its tissues.
b. It has a three-chambered heart that directs blood to either its tissues or its gas-exchange organ each time it is pumped.
c. It has not “solved” this problem.
d. It has a four-chambered heart that allows for the pumping of blood, at high pressure, to each system, the gas-exchange organ and the tissues.
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Question 68
In what way has the fish “solved” the problem of maintaining pressure when forcing blood to 1) its tissues and 2) its gas-exchange organ?
Choose one answer.
a. It has separate hearts, which pump blood to either its gas-exchange organ or to its tissues.
b. It has a three-chambered heart that directs blood to either its tissues or its gas-exchange organ each time it is pumped.
c. It has not “solved” this problem.
d. It has a four-chambered heart that allows for the pumping of blood, at high pressure, to each system, the gas-exchange organ and the tissues.
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Question 69
In what way has the squid “solved” the problem of maintaining pressure when forcing blood to 1) its tissues and 2) its gas-exchange organ?
Choose one answer.
a. It has separate hearts, which pump blood to either its gas-exchange organ or to its tissues.
b. It has a three-chambered heart that directs blood to either its tissues or its gas-exchange organ each time it is pumped.
c. It has not “solved” this problem.
d. It has a four-chambered heart that allows for the pumping of blood, at high pressure, to each system, the gas-exchange organ and the tissues.
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Question 70
In which of the following organisms would you expect to see a nerve net rather than a brain or nervous system?
Choose one answer.
a. A flatworm
b. An annelid worm
c. A snail
d. A starfish
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Question 71
In which of the following organisms would you find Malpighian tubules regulating excretion?
Choose one answer.
a. Insects
b. Flatworms
c. Anemones
d. Echinoderms
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Question 72
In which of the following organisms would you find flame cells regulating excretion?
Choose one answer.
a. Insects
b. Flatworms
c. Anemones
d. Echinoderms
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Question 73
In which system are sensory neurons and sensory pathways found in vertebrates?
Choose one answer.
a. The central nervous system
b. The peripheral nervous system
c. The somatic nervous system
d. The autonomic nervous system
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Question 74
Name the type of isolation mechanism that is operating in the following statement: Female violinist crabs will not mate with male fiddler crabs, because the males DO NOT make the right movements during courtship.
Choose one answer.
a. Temporal isolation
b. Behavioral isolation
c. Mechanical isolation
d. Ecological isolation
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Question 75
Name the type of isolation mechanism that is operating in the following statement: Some male dragonflies will mate with any females they encounter, regardless of species; however, the males’ sex organ cannot properly reach and fertilize the eggs of inter-specific females.
Choose one answer.
a. Temporal isolation
b. Behavioral isolation
c. Mechanical isolation
d. Ecological isolation
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Question 76
Once pheromones are received and recognized through the sensory system, they often trigger a response of what kind?
Choose one answer.
a. Endocrine
b. Nervous-system
c. Respiratory
d. None of the above
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Question 77
Soft-shelled crabs, as their name implies, do not have hard exoskeletons and can be eaten without needing to remove their shells. This is not, however, because they are a special, soft species of crab. Given what you know about exoskeletons, what else might explain this trait?
Choose one answer.
a. They are crabs that have just molted and have not yet undergone sclerotization.
b. They are crabs whose epicuticle has not yet been covered with a cement layer.
c. They are crabs whose exocrine glands have been triggered to dissolve their chitin matrix.
d. They are crabs that have been prevented from molting.
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Question 78
Suppose that this graph represents the population growth of a commercial-fish species. You would want to harvest fish so that their population is maintained at what point on this graph, and why?
Choose one answer.
a. At point C, because that is the point at which their population is largest
b. At point A, because that is the point at which their population has the fastest growth rate
c. At point C, because that is the point at which their population is most stable
d. At point B, because that is the point at which their population has the fastest growth rate
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Question 79
The abundance of Imaginary Owls is influenced by their fox predators, their lemming prey, and the availability of their nesting sites. Assuming that their population is density-dependent, what would you expect to happen to their carrying capacity if construction sites destroyed a significant proportion of their nesting sites?
Choose one answer.
a. The carrying capacity would increase.
b. The carrying capacity would decrease.
c. The carrying capacity would not change.
d. The carrying capacity would fluctuate briefly and then return to its initial number.
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Question 80
The movie genre of film noir often involves the premise of a man being seduced by an attractive woman, a femme fatale, and being tricked by the woman into doing something (usually committing a crime) that she wants him to do. In what way could one argue that the relationship between a wasp and an orchid is similar to that portrayed in a film noir?
Choose one answer.
a. In order to reach the nectar of an orchid, wasps commit “crimes” against other insects by killing them.
b. Male wasps are lured to orchids and unwittingly pollinate them because orchids emit a pheromone like that of female wasps.
c. Female wasps drink the nectar of orchids but then, rather than pollinating the flowers, bite off the orchid’s pollen-rich anthers.
d. Wasps that pollinate orchids later die from the fatal pollen.
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Question 81
The release of which of the following kinds of hormones would result in an increase in blood-glucose levels and a suppression of the immune and inflammatory response?
Choose one answer.
a. Norepinephrine
b. Epinephrine
c. Glucocorticoids
d. Mineralocorticoids
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Question 82
The theory of continental drift is supported by all of the following EXCEPT:
Choose one answer.
a. Fossils
b. Continental shape
c. Rocks
d. Climate
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Question 83
What is a disadvantage to herbivores?
Choose one answer.
a. Plants are less abundant and nutritious than animal prey.
b. The tough fibers of plants require stronger chewing or other mechanical digestion adaptations.
c. The cellulose of plants requires a more complicated system of digestion and absorption.
d. Both B and C
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Question 84
What kind of receptors would be found in snail and arthropod antennae, insect legs, and some fish fins?
Choose one answer.
a. Chemoreceptors
b. Electromagnetic receptors
c. Mechanoreceptors
d. Thermoreceptors
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Question 85
Which is of the following is FALSE in regards to species that successfully invade disturbed habitats?
Choose one answer.
a. They are r strategists.
b. They are K strategists.
c. They are strong competitors.
d. They are often exotic.
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Question 86
Which of the following best explains why fish cannot watch 3-D movies?
Choose one answer.
a. They cannot detect motion visually but must rely on mechanoreceptors.
b. They do not have stereoscopic vision.
c. Their electric fields would interfere with the production of images.
d. They can, so long as the movies are projected underwater (through a liquid medium).
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Question 87
Which of the following facts best provides evidence for the hypothesis that chemoreceptors are the oldest type of sensory receptors?
Choose one answer.
a. Chemoreceptor input (mainly from odors) is sent to a more primitive portion of the brain than is other sensory input.
b. Chemoreceptors are found in all animals.
c. Chemoreceptors are more primitive in design than other receptors.
d. Both A and B
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Question 88
Which of the following is a characteristic exclusive to ONLY vertebrate immune systems?
Choose one answer.
a. Phagocytosis (the ingestion of bacteria by cells)
b. The ability to recognize specific pathogens
c. The ability to boost the immune system
d. None of the above
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Question 89
Which of the following is a disadvantage of using the body surface for respiration?
Choose one answer.
a. It is inefficient and so can only be supplementary to another type of respiration (e.g. gills, lungs, and tracheae).
b. It forces those animals that use it to keep the outer surface of their body moist.
c. It cannot be used by very small organisms as they lack sufficient surface area.
d. It leads indirectly to an increase in the amount of carbon dioxide taken in by the system.
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Question 90
Which of the following is FALSE in regards to tracheal breathing in insects?
Choose one answer.
a. It is used even by aquatic insects.
b. It directly carries air to virtually every individual cell.
c. It can lead to water loss via water-vapor diffusion.
d. It is especially useful in large insects (>5cm), because it employs chitinous supports.
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Question 91
Which of the following is NOT a situation that can lead to or trigger parthenogenesis?
Choose one answer.
a. A season in which resources are plentiful and can be exploited by as many offspring as possible
b. A Wolbachia bacterial infection
c. The absence of males
d. The absence of females
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Question 92
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of having an endoskeleton instead of an exoskeleton?
Choose one answer.
a. Smooth and gradual growth, rather than growth occurring in bursts
b. Support for a larger, heavier body size
c. Better leverage for muscles
d. All of the above
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Question 93
Which of the following is NOT an example of top-down control on a community?
Choose one answer.
a. When killer whales are present in an area, the urchins that otters (their prey) eat are more abundant and devour kelp beds.
b. When a voracious starfish predator is removed from a tide pool, some of its prey species disappear while others’ abundance increases hugely.
c. When raised alone, black-sided salamanders and yellow-sided salamanders each are present in lower densities unlike when they are raised together.
d. In the presence of a fish predator, small prey species are more abundant, but when the fish is removed large prey species are more abundant.
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Question 94
Which of the following is TRUE about the electric organs of most fish?
Choose one answer.
a. They operate in a fashion similar to sonar, emitting constant weak signals and using changes in those signals to detect movement.
b. Unlike those of land vertebrates, they are used exclusively to stun prey or potential predators.
c. They are the most primitive kinds of sensory structures present in vertebrates.
d. Both B and C
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Question 95
Which of the following would NOT occur in response to a strong sensory stimulus?
Choose one answer.
a. Multiple receptors would fire.
b. Neurons would fire for a longer time.
c. The action potential would be stronger.
d. Neurons would fire faster.
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Question 96
Which of these is FALSE in regards to animal respiratory systems?
Choose one answer.
a. Birds, which require very efficient oxygen intake because they are homeothermic, use air sacs to increase the efficiency of their lung ventilation.
b. Frogs inflate their lungs by gulping in air and forcing it into their lungs using muscles in their mouths.
c. Reptiles inflate their lungs by using the contractions of a muscular diaphragm.
d. Fish increase the efficiency of their gills by using a method of countercurrent exchange.
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Question 97
Which statement is TRUE about species of different trophic levels?
Choose one answer.
a. Energy is lost at each level of a food chain, so high-trophic-level organisms are the least numerous.
b. High-trophic-level species are more dominant and therefore more numerous.
c. A trophic-level pyramid is a model of the equilibrium number of species on an island.
d. Small herbivores, like voles, form the base of every trophic-level pyramid.
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Question 98
Why are the phytoplankton concentrations in a lake much lower in summer than in autumn?
Choose one answer.
a. In summer the phytoplankton blooms are rapidly eaten by aquatic animals, but by fall the numbers of those animals have decreased.
b. In summer the heat of sunlight on open water is actually too strong for many phytoplankton to survive.
c. In autumn lower, nutrient-rich waters are brought to the surface, providing necessary resources for phytoplankton.
d. In autumn a thermocline is established, preventing oxygen from diffusing away from the surface waters where phytoplankton bloom.
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Question 99
Why did terrestrial herbivores need to develop larger, more complicated guts with greater fermentation capacity?
Choose one answer.
a. Aquatic herbivores feed on microscopic algae that require little digestion.
b. Aquatic herbivores can rely on a degree of external digestion from the medium in which they live.
c. Terrestrial plants contain much higher levels of structural carbohydrates.
d. Terrestrial plants are not associated with microbes that, in aquatic systems, aid in vegetative breakdown.
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Question 100
Why do pandas need to eat so much and so frequently compared to other mammal herbivores like goats?
Choose one answer.
a. Pandas are much larger than goats.
b. Pandas’ food sources are less fibrous than that of goats.
c. Pandas use a different digestive mode than the fermentation method of goats.
d. Goats are unusual among herbivores in that they have very slow metabolisms.
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Question 101
Why is competitive exclusion relatively rare?
Choose one answer.
a. The situation can only occur in systems in which no more than three species are present in a food web.
b. The better of two competing species is rarely removed from a habitat except under experimental conditions.
c. The frequency of niche overlap controls for this.
d. Most animals that compete for one resource also have other resources available to them.
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Question 102
Which of the following skeletal features would allow you to distinguish between an aquatic vertebrate and a vertebrate adapted to land?
Choose one answer.
a. A well-developed axial skeleton
b. A poorly-developed pelvic girdle
c. The absence of an appendicular skeleton
d. The presence of chitin
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