BIO312-FinalExam-Answers

A biologist discovers two populations of an insect species whose members appear identical. Members of one population are found in the leaf litter deep within the woods. Members of the other population are found in the grass at the edge of the woods. The biologist decides to designate the members of the two populations as two separate species. Which species concept is this biologist most closely utilizing?

Choose one answer.

	a. Ecological
	b. Paleontological
	c. Phylogenetic
	d. Biological

Question 2

A defining characteristic of allopatric speciation is:

Choose one answer.

	a. the appearance of new species in the midst of old ones.
	b. asexually reproducing populations.
	c. large populations.
	d. geographic isolation.

Question 3

A population that has been hunted to near extinction but is then allowed to recover most likely experienced:

Choose one answer.

	a. natural selection.
	b. genetic divergence.
	c. a population bottleneck.
	d. the founder effect.

Question 4

Choose the best answer to fill in the blank. The bones in the forelimbs of birds, bats, humans, and whales are thought to be homologous; this implies that all bones will be the same except in _______.

Choose one answer.

	a. embryonic origin
	b. position on the body
	c. number
	d. function

Question 5

Choose the best definition of an adaptation. An adaptation refers to:

Choose one answer.

	a. a non-inherited trait that makes organisms more fit in its environment.
	b. a non-inherited trait that makes organism more fit, as a result of the action of natural selection.
	c. a hereditary trait that makes an organism more fit in its environment, and that has arisen as a result of the action of natural selection.
	d. All of these

Question 6

Consider the following scenario, and then choose the best response. Firecracker seed finches of Africa feed on either large or small seeds, and as a result have developed only large or small beaks. This is likely the result of which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. Directional selection
	b. Stabilizing selection
	c. Balancing selection
	d. Disruptive selection

Question 7

Consider the following scenario, and then choose the best response. In regions of Africa where malaria is prevalent, the sickle allele (HbS) occurs at a high frequency. Which of the following best describes the reason for this?

Choose one answer.

	a. HbS is a dominant allele, and therefore should occur at a higher frequency.
	b. It is the only allele present on the continent of Africa.
	c. Heterozygotes in Africa are favored in areas where malaria occurs.
	d. The HbS allele is only present at high frequency because of genetic drift.

Question 8

Elaborate tails in male peacocks and birds of paradise are probably a result of:

Choose one answer.

	a. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
	b. genetic drift.
	c. sexual selection.
	d. inbreeding.

Question 9

Evolutionary theory includes which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. Acquired characteristics
	b. Differential survival and reproduction
	c. The idea that resources are unlimited
	d. The use and disuse of traits

Question 10

Frogs that breed at different times in the same temporary pond are an example of what type of reproductive isolating mechanism?

Choose one answer.

	a. Gametic
	b. Temporal
	c. Behavioral
	d. Ecological

Question 11

Gene flow does which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. Enhances the process of speciation
	b. Is necessary for natural selection
	c. Occurs only when migrants reproduce in a new population
	d. All of these

Question 12

Human infants with intermediate birth weights have a greater chance of survival than those with either higher or lower birth weights. This outcome is an example of _______ selection.

Choose one answer.

	a. directional
	b. stabilizing
	c. balancing
	d. disruptive

Question 13

Hybrid breakdown is the result of what kind of reproductive isolation?

Choose one answer.

	a. Ecological
	b. Mechanical
	c. Prezygotic
	d. Postzygotic

Question 14

In addition to Charles Darwin, who is given credit for the idea of evolution by natural selection?

Choose one answer.

	a. Alfred Wallace
	b. Charles Lyell
	c. Georges Cuvier
	d. Erasmus Darwin

Question 15

In what way(s) does/do artificial selection differ from natural selection? Choose the answer that applies to natural selection only.

Choose one answer.

	a. Future offspring will have greater percent of individuals with favorable traits.
	b. The breed or population undergoes evolution over time.
	c. Individuals with highest fitness will produce more offspring.
	d. Individuals with otherwise low fitness might be able to reproduce.

Question 16

Natural selection acts on which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. Individuals
	b. Populations
	c. Species
	d. Families

Question 17

Polyploidy is a more common phenomenon in which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. Insects
	b. Mammals
	c. Bacteria
	d. Plants

Question 18

The transfer of a few individuals from one natural population into a new area where such individuals didn’t previously exist is an example of:

Choose one answer.

	a. gene flow.
	b. genetic drift.
	c. the bottleneck effect.
	d. the founder effect.

Question 19

The wings of a bat and the wings of a fly are _______ and show morphological _______.

Choose one answer.

	a. homologous, convergence
	b. analogues, convergence
	c. homologous, divergence
	d. analogues, divergence

Question 20

Two closely related species of cats might mate and produce a fertilized egg, which is subsequently aborted. This is an example of:

Choose one answer.

	a. temporal isolation.
	b. hybrid inviability.
	c. hybrid vigor.
	d. hybrid breakdown.

Question 21

What type of selection is probably involved when organisms that exhibit one extreme of a trait distribution (such as height, weight, etc.) have a better chance of survival than those organisms exhibiting the opposite extreme of the same trait?

Choose one answer.

	a. Stabilizing selection
	b. Disruptive selection
	c. Balancing selection
	d. Directional selection

Question 22

Which of the following best describes Darwin’s theory of evolution?

Choose one answer.

	a. Natural selection requires a long time to lead to new species formation.
	b. Darwin’s views are no longer accepted by biologists.
	c. Characteristics acquired during an individual’s life are always passed on to future generations.
	d. Darwin’s theory incorporated Mendel's work on patterns of inheritance.

Question 23

Which of the following best describes the conditions in which sympatric speciation occurs?

Choose one answer.

	a. It occurs when individuals are separated by geographical barriers.
	b. It occurs in populations that border one another.
	c. It occurs when individuals living together become reproductively isolated.
	d. None of these

Question 24

Which of the following best describes the effect of inbreeding on a population?

Choose one answer.

	a. It increases heterozygosity.
	b. It increases homozygosity.
	c. It results in mating among unrelated individuals.
	d. Both B and C

Question 25

Which of the following best illustrates a biogeographic pattern that provides evidence of evolution?

Choose one answer.

	a. The forelimbs of sharks, penguins, and seals
	b. Three plant species that occur on different continents in the same type of habitat
	c. Large, flightless species of birds such as rheas, ostrich and emus are found on the three different continents in the Southern hemisphere.
	d. All of these

Question 26

Which of the following can produce new alleles within a population?

Choose one answer.

	a. Mutation.
	b. Migration
	c. Genetic drift
	d. Random mating

Question 27

Which of the following plays the greatest role with respect to the impact of a new mutation?

Choose one answer.

	a. Location of the mutant gene in the genome
	b. The survival of the individuals that carry this mutation
	c. Reproductive success of the individuals that carry this mutation
	d. All of these

Question 28

Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding mutations and their impact on populations’ genetics?

Choose one answer.

	a. Mutations are an important source of variation in a population.
	b. Mutations are frequent events and selection easily acts on the new mutations.
	c. Only those mutations with beneficial effects will be favored by natural selection.
	d. Most mutations reduce an individual’s chance of surviving and reproducing.

Question 29

Which of the following examples best illustrates Lamarck’s proposed mechanism for evolution?

Choose one answer.

	a. Rodenticides applied in an old house eliminate some mice, while others survive.
	b. Lions attack a group of warthogs, and the faster animals escape.
	c. A father learns to play a musical instrument and expects that his son will be born with a natural ability to play.
	d. A person who is tall had a father who was also very tall.

Question 30

According to the Hardy-Weinberg equation, the frequency of heterozygous individuals is represented by which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. p2
	b. q2
	c. 2pq
	d. Both A and B

Question 31

Choose the best response based on the following scenario: Individuals migrate into a population that is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, and they do not alter that equilibrium. Which of the following might be a reason for this?

Choose one answer.

	a. The migrants do not contribute their genes to the new population.
	b. The migrants are only males.
	c. They mate randomly in the new population.
	d. The migrants arrive in large numbers.

Question 32

Choose the best response based on the following scenario: In an isolated population of 500 people, 18% are homozygous recessive for a trait that is governed by two alleles. What is the number of heterozygous people in this population?

Choose one answer.

	a. 244
	b. 32
	c. 64
	d. 128

Question 33

If the frequency of a recessive allele in a population in the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is 0.5, what is the expected percent of this allele in the next generation?

Choose one answer.

	a. 20 percent
	b. 50 percent
	c. 80 percent
	d. 110 percent

Question 34

If the frequency of a recessive allele is 0.26, the frequency of the dominant allele is:

Choose one answer.

	a. 0.13
	b. 0.26
	c. 0.52
	d. 0.74

Question 35

In a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the frequency of the recessive homozygous genotype (q²) is 0.16 and the frequency of a dominant phenotype (p² + 2pq) is 0.84. What is the expected frequency of the heterozygous carriers (2pq)?

Choose one answer.

	a. 0.48
	b. 0.9
	c. 0.27
	d. 0.8

Question 36

In a population of birds, the wing feathers pigmentation is determined by a single gene with the co-dominant pair of alleles (A₁ and A₂). Genotype A₁A₁ has dark brown wing color; genotype A₁A₂ is light brown, and birds with the genotype A₂A₂ have a light beige wing color. In this population of 1,000 birds, 350 have dark brown wings, 500 have light brown wings, and 150 birds have light beige wings. What is the A₁ allele frequency in this population?

Choose one answer.

	a. 0.20
	b. 0.35
	c. 0.60
	d. 0.75

Question 37

In a study of a natural population of one endangered animal species, researchers collected the data on the observed genotypic frequencies for several genes. When they compared these frequencies with the expected values using the Chi Square test, they found a significant difference. The researchers concluded that this population is not in the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. What could be the possible cause?

Choose one answer.

	a. One or more microevolutionary forces are acting in this population.
	b. There is a large number of individuals in the population.
	c. Random mating is occurring in the population.
	d. No evolutionary forces are operating on the population.

Question 38

In the Hardy-Weinberg equation, the term p² refers to which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. The frequency of the dominant allele
	b. The frequency of the homozygous dominant genotype
	c. The frequency of recessive alleles in a population
	d. The frequency of the heterozygotes in a population

Question 39

Microevolution is the result of which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. Genetic drift
	b. Mutation
	c. Natural selection
	d. All of these

Question 40

The frequency of heterozygotes in a population will be maximized when the dominant allele is present at what frequency?

Choose one answer.

	a. 1
	b. 0.75
	c. 0.5
	d. 0.25

Question 41

When selection favors heterozygotes over homozygotes:

Choose one answer.

	a. both alleles are maintained at a frequency different from that predicted by Hardy-Weinberg principles, based on the strength of selection against the recessive allele.
	b. the selective advantage afforded the deleterious allele in the heterozygote exactly balances the selective disadvantage suffered by homozygous recessive individuals.
	c. genetic diversity in the population can be maintained in such way.
	d. All of these

Question 42

Which evolutionary force intensifies as the size of a population decreases?

Choose one answer.

	a. Natural selection
	b. Genetic drift
	c. Mutation
	d. Mating preference

Question 43

Which of the following is an example of random mating?

Choose one answer.

	a. Females choose males that have a specific set of characteristics similar to themselves.
	b. A female bird will mate only with males that perform the best courtship displays.
	c. Males look for females that are distinctly different in appearance from themselves.
	d. Males mate with any females they encounter.

Question 44

Which of the following microevolutionary forces is NOT likely to disrupt a population that is in genetic equilibrium?

Choose one answer.

	a. Small population size
	b. Mutation
	c. Random mating
	d. Gene flow

Question 45

Which statement(s) are true?

Choose one answer.

	a. Inbreeding can change genotypic frequencies, but in the absence of another evolutionary force, will not change allele frequencies.
	b. Selection is more efficient at removing dominant rather than recessive alleles from a population.
	c. Mutation, acting alone, is a weak evolutionary force.
	d. All of these

Question 46

According to the Hawk-Dove game, which of the following is true?

Choose one answer.

	a. The greatest payoff for player 1 occurs when both players are doves.
	b. The greatest payoff for player 1 occurs when both players are hawks.
	c. The greatest payoff for player 1 occurs when player 1 is a dove and player 2 is a hawk.
	d. The greatest payoff for player 1 occurs when player 1 is a hawk and player 2 is a dove.

Question 47

An evolutionary stable strategy does which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. Applies to the social behavior of animals
	b. Resists invasion by alternative strategies
	c. Is a form of a Nash Equilibrium
	d. All of these

Question 48

Coevolution refers to which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. Species that live with one another
	b. Species that have a mutual evolutionary influence
	c. Species that form fertile hybrids
	d. Species that have diverged from one another

Question 49

Evolutionary Game Theory links biology to which of the following subjects?

Choose one answer.

	a. Economics
	b. Psychology
	c. Geography
	d. Philosophy

Question 50

If the Prisoner’s dilemma is played once, according to a cooperative-defect matrix, the highest payoff occurs in which of the following situations?

Choose one answer.

	a. When both players cooperate
	b. When both players defect
	c. When player 1 cooperates and player 2 defects
	d. When player 1 defects and player 2 cooperates

Question 51

The Red Queen Hypothesis is associated with which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. Coevolution
	b. Gene flow
	c. Mimicry
	d. Population growth

Question 52

When does Nash equilibrium occur?

Choose one answer.

	a. When one player chooses the best response to another player’s actions and the other player does not
	b. When neither player chooses the best response to the other player’s actions
	c. When both players choose the best response to the other player’s actions
	d. All of these

Question 53

Which of the following does NOT represent an example of an evolutionary arms race?

Choose one answer.

	a. Length of bills in birds, used to crack different size seed
	b. Root systems of plants, reaching to water resources of the neighboring plant
	c. The amount of toxin in a salamander species that is an easy prey for snakes
	d. Pathogenic bacteria that develop antibiotic resistance

Question 54

Which of the following provide(s) evidence of predator-prey coevolution?

Choose one answer.

	a. Galapagos tortoise and cactus branch height
	b. Acacia ants and acacia trees
	c. Coloration in polar bears and the seals they hunt
	d. Both A and C

Question 55

If we extended the Prisoner’s dilemma to competition between males for mates, the most sustainable long-term strategy for the population would be:

Choose one answer.

	a. for one male to be a killer and the other a non-killer.
	b. for both males to try and kill the other.
	c. for both males to avoid trying to kill the other.
	d. All strategies are equally successful in the long term.

Question 56

Dolphins and ichthyosaurs look similar but are not closely related to one another. They are considered to be which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. Analogous
	b. Paralogous
	c. Orthologous
	d. Homologous

Question 57

Phylogenies can be used for which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. To understand history of change in a character
	b. To test hypotheses about the origins of particular characters
	c. As legal evidence in a courtroom
	d. All of these

Question 58

Suppose that you need to construct a phylogeny from the genetic distance (difference) matrix data in the table below. The numbers (.065 to .280) show a relative genetic distance between the species (1–5). Which species are closely related and therefore might be grouped together in a phylogeny?

Choose one answer.

	a. 1 and 2 only
	b. 3 and 4 only
	c. 1 and 5, as well as 2 and 5
	d. 1 and 2, as well as 3 and 4

Question 59

The cladistic method of analysis is based on which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. A common evolutionary history
	b. Various measures of similarity
	c. The weighting of character data
	d. Paraphyletic groupings

Question 60

What is the correct order of events for conducting a phylogenetic analysis?

Choose one answer.

	a. Extraction and alignment, determining the substitution model, tree building, tree evaluation
	b. Tree building, extraction and alignment, determining the substitution model, tree evaluation
	c. Determining the substitution model, tree building, tree evaluation, extraction and alignment
	d. Tree building, tree evaluation, extraction and alignment, determining the substitution model

Question 61

What is the historical relationship among lineages or organisms called?

Choose one answer.

	a. Taxonomy
	b. Systematics
	c. A phylogeny
	d. Natural selection

Question 62

What is the method of deciding on the correct phylogenetic tree that has the fewest number of steps?

Choose one answer.

	a. Branch and bound
	b. Bayesian clustering
	c. Maximum likelihood
	d. Parsimony

Question 63

What is the model of character evolution that occurs through gradual, small changes accumulating over time?

Choose one answer.

	a. Punctuated gradualism
	b. Punctuated equilibrium
	c. Phyletic equilibrium
	d. Phyletic gradualism

Question 64

What is the term associated with a group of species derived from a single common ancestor?

Choose one answer.

	a. Monophyly
	b. Paraphyly
	c. Polyphyly
	d. Both A and B

Question 65

When do gene trees and species trees differ in appearance?

Choose one answer.

	a. When mutation and speciation events occur at different rates
	b. They never differ in appearance.
	c. When mutation and speciation events occur at the same rate
	d. They always differ in appearance.

Question 66

Which of the following best describes genes that are paralogous?

Choose one answer.

	a. They are always located on different chromosomes.
	b. They might have different functions.
	c. They result from gene duplication.
	d. Both B and C

Question 67

Which of the following is NOT an assumption of building a phylogenetic tree?

Choose one answer.

	a. Sequences are correct and from the specified source.
	b. Sequences are homologous with others in the alignment.
	c. Sampling of taxa is adequate to resolve problem under study.
	d. Sequence variation among samples is representative of only the samples involved.

Question 68

Which of the following is true with respect to an outgroup in a phylogeny construction?

Choose one answer.

	a. An outgroup is used to help align members of the ingroup.
	b. An outgroup can be used to root a tree.
	c. An outgroup is less closely related to a member of the ingroup than ingroup members are to each other.
	d. All of these

Question 69

Which of the following refers to the situation in which all species in a group share a common ancestor, but not all the species are derived from that common ancestor?

Choose one answer.

	a. Polyphyly
	b. Paraphyly
	c. Monophyly
	d. None of these

Question 70

Which of the following is the most conclusive evidence used to establish the relationship of closely related species?

Choose one answer.

	a. Fossil remains
	b. Traditional taxonomy
	c. Automated DNA sequencing
	d. Homologous structures

Question 71

Choose the best answer. Fossils found further down in a layer of rock are most likely:

Choose one answer.

	a. more recent.
	b. more ancient.
	c. from strata closer to the Earth's surface.
	d. associated with a single taxon.

Question 72

Endosymbiotic theory refers to which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. The symbiotic relationship between bacteria and the digestive systems of herbivores
	b. The coevolution of bacteria and humans
	c. The evolutionary origin of mitochondria and chloroplasts in the eukaryotic cells
	d. The origin of prokaryotic organisms on Earth

Question 73

Georges Cuvier pointed out that natural catastrophes of the Earth’s geological past are a good explanation for:

Choose one answer.

	a. the theory that all organisms evolved from a common ancestor.
	b. natural selection.
	c. fossil records.
	d. the creation of all organisms.

Question 74

Microfossils of ancient single cell organisms reveal:

Choose one answer.

	a. that life on earth is at least 3.5 billion years old.
	b. that an increase in the amount of oxygen on our planet coincides with the evolution of photosynthetic bacteria.
	c. that the first Eukaryotes originated less than 2 billion years ago.
	d. All of these

Question 75

Mitochondria and chloroplasts are cell organelles found in the Eukaryotic organisms. What is the current theory regarding their origins?

Choose one answer.

	a. These organelles developed as enfolding of the prokaryotic cell membrane.
	b. These organelles developed from the prokaryotic cells that were engulfed by the other cells.
	c. Mitochondria might have originated from the photosynthetic bacteria, while chloroplasts originated from the aerobic bacteria.
	d. There is no scientific evidence for the Endosymbiosis theory.

Question 76

One of the Earth’s largest extinctions occurred at the end of which geological period?

Choose one answer.

	a. Paleozoic Era
	b. Cenozoic Era
	c. Cambrian
	d. Pre-Cambrian

Question 77

The Cambrian Explosion resulted in:

Choose one answer.

	a. the formation of all of the plant phyla.
	b. the formation of all major animal phyla.
	c. the age of the reptiles, such as dinosaurs.
	d. the formation of single cell, eukaryotic diversity.

Question 78

The earliest prokaryotes existed:

Choose one answer.

	a. 500,000 years ago.
	b. 1.5 million years ago.
	c. 2.5 million years ago.
	d. 3.5 million years ago.

Question 79

The end of the dinosaurs occurred during which geological period?

Choose one answer.

	a. Jurassic
	b. Cambrian
	c. Carboniferous
	d. Cretaceous

Question 80

The first animals can be traced back to which geological period?

Choose one answer.

	a. Mesozoic Era
	b. Cretaceous Era
	c. Permian Era
	d. Pre-Cambrian

Question 81

The ice age that began approximately 2 million years ago is called:

Choose one answer.

	a. the climatic optimum.
	b. the little ice age.
	c. the Pleistocene ice age.
	d. the Holocene ice age.

Question 82

The Punctuated equilibrium model of macroevolution was proposed by paleontologists to explain some discrepancies in the fossil record. Which of the following is true about this model?

Choose one answer.

	a. Punctuated equilibrium model proposes that speciation could only be slow and gradual.
	b. The pattern in the fossil record indicates that most species undergo relatively little change over long period of time, and that long periods of stasis were punctuated with a rapid change.
	c. The pattern in the fossil record indicates that most species undergo rapid change and that evolutionary process is much faster than originally thought.
	d. None of these

Question 83

What was the contribution of geologist Charles Lyell to the development of evolutionary theory?

Choose one answer.

	a. He provided evidence that Earth is about 6,500 years old.
	b. He provided evidence of numerous catastrophic events encountered during human evolution.
	c. He discovered further evidence to support Lamarck’s theories.
	d. He asserted that geologic events occur over long periods and operate according to consistent processes over time.

Question 84

Which is NOT considered a volcanic mountain?

Choose one answer.

	a. Mount Fuji
	b. Mount Washington
	c. Mauna Loa
	d. Mount Vesuvius

Question 85

Which of the following can cause global temperature shifts?

Choose one answer.

	a. Shifting continents
	b. Variations in the Earth's orbit
	c. Solar reflectivity
	d. All of these

Question 86

Which of the following is NOT part of plate tectonics?

Choose one answer.

	a. The Earth's surface is covered by a series of crustal plates.
	b. The ocean floors are continually moving, spreading from the center, sinking at the edges, and regenerating.
	c. Convection currents beneath the plates move the crustal plates in different directions.
	d. The source of heat driving the convection currents is the sun.

Question 87

Which of the following locations had the most impact on Darwin in developing his theory of the origin of species by the means of natural selection?

Choose one answer.

	a. North America
	b. His boyhood neighborhood in England
	c. The Galápagos Islands
	d. East Africa

Question 88

Which of the following organisms would you NOT expect to find preserved as a fossil?

Choose one answer.

	a. A jellyfish
	b. A shelled arthropod
	c. A mosquito
	d. A trilobite

Question 89

Which of the following statements is true?

Choose one answer.

	a. Humans probably migrated from Asia to North America across the Bering Land Bridge.
	b. Humans evolved independently in Africa, Asia and North America.
	c. Humans never lived in North America until the 15th century.
	d. Humans probably inhabited North and South America using ships as means of transportation.

Question 90

Why is the fossil record considered incomplete?

Choose one answer.

	a. The heating of the Earth's interior eliminates evidence of fossils.
	b. There are too few professionals to interpret the fossil record.
	c. It is biased toward organisms that can be fossilized.
	d. There are simply too few fossils to produce a clear record.

Question 91

A notochord and a dorsal hollow nerve chord are characteristics of:

Choose one answer.

	a. arthropods.
	b. brachiopods.
	c. chordates.
	d. echinodermata.

Question 92

Clams and squids belong to what animal phylum?

Choose one answer.

	a. Mollusca
	b. Cnidaria
	c. Porifera
	d. Platyhelminthes

Question 93

Hair and mammary glands best describe which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. Fish
	b. Amphibians
	c. Birds
	d. Mammals

Question 94

In which of the following taxa does the mature sporophyte depend completely on the gametophyte for nutrition?

Choose one answer.

	a. Flowering plant
	b. Fern
	c. Conifer
	d. Moss

Question 95

Nematodes are characterized by which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. Well-developed digestive systems
	b. Pseudocoeloms as adults
	c. An absence of circulatory systems
	d. All of these

Question 96

Sponges possess which of the following characteristics associated with all Poriferans?

Choose one answer.

	a. Asymmetry
	b. Complex digestive tract
	c. Radial symmetry
	d. Bilateral symmetry

Question 97

Which of the animal phyla has the largest number of species in the entire kingdom?

Choose one answer.

	a. Arthropods
	b. Nematodes
	c. Molluscs
	d. Annelids

Question 98

Which of the following are the only extant (living) animals that descended directly from dinosaurs?

Choose one answer.

	a. Lizards
	b. Crocodiles
	c. Snakes
	d. Birds
	e. Mammals

Question 99

Which of the following is an example from the division pterophyta?

Choose one answer.

	a. A moss
	b. A fern
	c. A tree
	d. A fungus

Question 100

Which of the following is considered to be endothermic?

Choose one answer.

	a. Mammals
	b. Birds
	c. Amphibians
	d. Both A and B

Question 101

Which of the following is NOT a gymnosperm?

Choose one answer.

	a. Cycad
	b. Ginkgo
	c. Sago palm
	d. Cherry tree

Question 102

Which of the following is NOT a member of the Eukaryota?

Choose one answer.

	a. Fungi
	b. Protists
	c. Animals
	d. Eubacteria

Question 103

Why is a liverwort considered a non-vascular plant?

Choose one answer.

	a. Because it produces flowers
	b. Because it does not contain any root structure
	c. Because it does not contain conducting cells with lignin
	d. Because it produces seeds

Question 104

Working from deep geologic strata toward shallow geologic strata, what is the sequence in which fossils of these groups should make their first appearance?

1. chordates
2. Cyanobacteria
3. Cycads
4. flowering plants

Choose one answer.

	a. 3 → 2 → 4 → 1
	b. 2 → 1 → 3 → 4
	c. 1 → 3 → 2 → 4
	d. 3 → 1 → 2 → 4

Question 105

Unicellular organisms that are typically found in extreme environments, such as thermal vents and extreme salinity, belong to what kingdom and/or domain of life?

Choose one answer.

	a. Fungi
	b. Archaea
	c. Plantae
	d. Animalia

Question 106

Archaic hominins shared an increasing number of physiological features with the genus Homo. They appear to have been capable of bipedal locomotion and made stone tools. When did the first members of the genus Homo appear in the fossil records?

Choose one answer.

	a. ~100,000 years ago
	b. ~1 million years ago
	c. ~2.3 million years ago
	d. ~3.5 million years ago

Question 107

Humans are part of a super-family known as the Hominoidea. This clade consists of eight living genera. Which of following genera are more closely related to Humans than to the other genera?

Choose one answer.

	a. Orangutans (Pongo)
	b. Gorillas (Gorilla)
	c. Chimpanzees (Pan)
	d. Gibbon genera

Question 108

Races of humans are unlikely to evolve extensive differences because:

Choose one answer.

	a. the environment is unlikely to change.
	b. human evolution is complete.
	c. the human races are incompletely isolated.
	d. A and B
	e. All of these

Question 109

Which of the following hypotheses on the fate of pre-modern hominin populations in Europe and Asia has more support in the recent studies?

Choose one answer.

	a. The multiregional hypothesis, which predicts that humans in different regions are descended from premodern hominins in Europe, Asia and Africa
	b. Out of Africa hypothesis, which proposes that modern humans evolved in Africa about 2 million years ago
	c. Out of Africa hypothesis, which proposes that 100,000 years ago, modern Homo sapiens emerged in Africa, and then moved out of Africa, where it replaced other pre-modern hominins of Europe and Asia
	d. Out of Europe hypothesis, which proposes that Homo sapiens evolved in Europe and spread to the other continents over the past 50,000 years

Question 110

Which of the following is NOT correct regarding Human evolution?

Choose one answer.

	a. Modern Homo sapiens are believed to have evolved in Europe 10,000 years ago.
	b. Australopithecus species had relatively larger brain (compared to body size) compared with the Homo erectus.
	c. Neanderthal and modern humans are not as different from each other as we originally thought, and it is possible that our genomes carry some Neanderthal genes.
	d. Neanderthal and humans both lived in different times and locations in Europe.

Question 111

Below is a list of some initial problems with Darwin’s theory that have been addressed with advances of genetics and the modern evolutionary biology. Which one is not a part of Darwin’s Theory of Evolution?

Choose one answer.

	a. Accounting for complex structures with multiple intricate parts.
	b. Explaining traits and organs of seemingly little importance.
	c. The sorting process of natural selection and why it doesn’t run out of variation to sort on?
	d. The theory of special creation proposes that life originated recently and that species do not change.

Question 112

In order to understand the origin of life on our planet, evolutionary biologists collaborate with:

Choose one answer.

	a. chemists.
	b. geologists.
	c. atmospheric scientists.
	d. All of these

Question 113

Theory of Special Creation is based on _______, while Theory of Evolution is based on _______.

Choose one answer.

	a. scientific evidence; faith
	b. evidence; scientific evidence
	c. faith, scientific evidence
	d. conviction, scattered evidence

Question 114

Which of the following best describes an academic position on science and religion, especially in light of evolutionary theory?

Choose one answer.

	a. Evolutionary biology has a complete answer for the human nature.
	b. Evolution of life is just a theory.
	c. Evolution of life is not founded by evidence.
	d. An evolutionary biologist, just as any other scientist could also be a person of faith.