BIO313-FinalExam-Answers

A mixed population of solid white moths and solid black moths inhabit a forest near an industrial city. Soot from the factories settles on the tree trunks, on which the moths rest during the day. Birds predate on the moths during the day. Which of the following is most likely to occur?

Choose one answer.

	a. The white moths will go extinct.
	b. The majority of moths in the population will become gray.
	c. The number of white moths in the population will increase.
	d. The number of white moths in the population will decrease.

Question 2

A species with a constant probability of death throughout its life exemplifies which type of survivorship curve?

Choose one answer.

	a. Type I
	b. Type II
	c. Type III
	d. none of the above

Question 3

A study of woodpeckers compared the woodpecker population in two sites: a managed forest in which dead trees over ten feet tall and undergrowth were removed, and the control site in which dead treed and undergrowth were allowed to remain. The woodpecker population in the control site was 1000, while in the managed forest the woodpecker population totaled 100. Potential food sources were identical in both sites. Woodpecker nests in the control site were hollowed-out holes fifteen feet above the ground in dead trees. When undergrowth was allowed to remain in the managed forest, no change was observed in the woodpecker population. When artificial “dead” trees with hollowed-out holes fifteen feet above ground were added to the study site, the woodpecker population doubled. Which of the following can be concluded from this study?

Choose one answer.

	a. The woodpeckers needed more food resources.
	b. There were too few mated pairs in the managed forest.
	c. Undergrowth removal is needed to provide clear flight paths for the woodpeckers.
	d. Available nesting sites is the limiting resource for the woodpeckers in this study site.

Question 4

An orchard represents a population with which dispersion pattern?

Choose one answer.

	a. clumped
	b. random
	c. scattered
	d. uniform

Question 5

Burning fossil fuels produces gases that stress which of the following cycles?

Choose one answer.

	a. water cycle
	b. carbon cycle
	c. nitrogen cycle
	d. phosphorous cycle

Question 6

In which of the following populations is disease transmission most likely to be a problem?

Choose one answer.

	a. social species
	b. solitary species
	c. a female and her young
	d. all of the above

Question 7

In which stage of ecological succession is old growth forest present?

Choose one answer.

	a. climax community
	b. primary succession
	c. secondary succession
	d. all of the above

Question 8

Most resources in the environment occur in which dispersion pattern?

Choose one answer.

	a. clumped
	b. random
	c. uniform
	d. all of the above

Question 9

Poison-dart frogs are an example of

Choose one answer.

	a. Batesian mimicry
	b. cryptic coloration
	c. Mullerian mimicry
	d. aposematic coloration

Question 10

Sea anemones capture prey by stinging the prey with the anemone’s tentacles. Clownfish are immune to the sea anemone’s sting and live among its tentacles. Clownfish are brightly colored and therefore easy to see, which attracts other fish within the reach of the sea anemone’s tentacles. The clownfish survive on the scraps or prey dropped by the sea anemone as it feeds on the prey. The interaction between the sea anemone and the clownfish is best described as

Choose one answer.

	a. commensalism.
	b. mutualism.
	c. predation.
	d. symbiosis.

Question 11

Two distinct bird species occupy an island. Species A has a short, broad beak and eats large seeds. Species B has a short, narrow beak and eats small seeds. If the small seed crop is greatly reduced one year, while the large seed crop remains unchanged, which species is likely to be dominant the following year?

Choose one answer.

	a. Species A
	b. Species B
	c. Both species will be present in equal numbers.
	d. No conclusion can be drawn from the information given.

Question 12

Two species of bivalve mollusk occupy the Scottish coast. Species A is found above high tide mark while Species B is found in the intertidal zone. If Species B is experimentally removed from the study site, Species A colonizes the area previously occupied by Species B. After its expansion, Species A occupied which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. realized niche
	b. ecological niche
	c. fundamental niche
	d. all of the above

Question 13

Two species of trumpet vine exist in a wood land: one species has flowers 4 mm deep and the other has flowers 8 mm deep. Hummingbirds feed on the nectar from the smaller trumpet vine flowers. A genetic mutation arises in some hummingbirds that lengthens their beak to 8 mm. Which of the following most correctly describes what is likely to happen?

Choose one answer.

	a. Competitive release: The long-beaked hummingbirds will expand their niche.
	b. Competition between hummingbirds for 4 mm trumpet vine flowers’ nectar will occur.
	c. Resource partitioning: Small-beaked hummingbirds will feed on 4 mm flowers and long-beaked hummingbirds will feed on 8 mm flowers.
	d. The long-beaked hummingbirds will outcompete the small-beaked hummingbirds and the small-beaked hummingbirds will go extinct.

Question 14

Which of the following best describes a habitat?

Choose one answer.

	a. the biotic and abiotic components of a local area
	b. the local area in which the individuals of a species live
	c. all the species occupying a local area and interacting with each other
	d. all individuals of a species living in a local area and interacting with each other

Question 15

Which of the following best describes a keystone species?

Choose one answer.

	a. a species that substantially alters the habitat
	b. the species with the largest population in the community
	c. a nonnative species that was introduced into the community
	d. a species whose removal from the community destroys the community

Question 16

Which of the following best describes a species’ ecological niche?

Choose one answer.

	a. how the organism fits into its community
	b. the ecological role the organism fills in the community
	c. the organism’s total use of the abiotic and biotic factors in its environment
	d. all of the above

Question 17

Which of the following best describes coevolution?

Choose one answer.

	a. a parasite and its host
	b. two species that evolved in the same ecosystem
	c. two species whose life cycles are interdependent
	d. two species, in the same ecosystem, whose evolution has been influenced by the presence of the other species

Question 18

Which of the following best describes how an adaptation evolves?

Choose one answer.

	a. A need exists and a change occurs in response to fill the need.
	b. An unoccupied niche exists, and an organism changes to be able to occupy it.
	c. A change occurs in an organism, which allows the organism to compete more effectively.
	d. A genetic change occurs in an organism, which allows the organism to compete more effectively.

Question 19

Which of the following best describes why ecosystems rarely contain consumers above the tertiary level?

Choose one answer.

	a. Competition for mates is too great above the tertiary level.
	b. Too little energy reaches consumers above the tertiary level.
	c. Consumers above the tertiary level are confined to aquatic ecosystems.
	d. all of the above

Question 20

Which of the following characterizes a K-selected species?

Choose one answer.

	a. long life
	b. short lifespan
	c. “big bang” reproduction
	d. many young per reproduction

Question 21

Which of the following characterizes an r-selected species?

Choose one answer.

	a. long life
	b. semelparity
	c. parental care
	d. all of the above

Question 22

Which of the following components of a food web receives the most energy?

Choose one answer.

	a. producers
	b. herbivores
	c. detritivores
	d. primary consumers

Question 23

Which of the following correctly describes Batesian mimicry?

Choose one answer.

	a. coloration that matches the background substrate
	b. coloration indicating poisonousness or distastefulness
	c. a group of related species that display the same warning coloration
	d. imitation of a harmful or dangerous species by an unharmful or non-dangerous species

Question 24

Which of the following groups is lowest on the trophic pyramid?

Choose one answer.

	a. producers
	b. tertiary consumers
	c. primary consumers
	d. secondary consumers

Question 25

Which of the following interactions usually involves the death of one of the individuals in the relationship?

Choose one answer.

	a. parasitism
	b. parasitoidism
	c. predation
	d. B and C

Question 26

Which of the following is a component of a population system?

Choose one answer.

	a. pathogens
	b. space
	c. water
	d. all of the above

Question 27

Which of the following is an anti-predator defense?

Choose one answer.

	a. foraging in a group
	b. body markings that resemble eyes
	c. secretion of nasty-tasting chemicals through skin pores
	d. all of the above

Question 28

Which of the following is an antiherbivory defense?

Choose one answer.

	a. thorns
	b. waxy coating
	c. production of fruit
	d. production of nectar

Question 29

Which of the following is most likely to exhibit exponential growth?

Choose one answer.

	a. a native r-selected species
	b. an invasive r-selected species
	c. an invasive K-selected species
	d. A and B

Question 30

Which of the following is most sensitive to habitat destruction?

Choose one answer.

	a. a native r-selected species
	b. a native K-selected species
	c. an invasive r-selected species
	d. an invasive K-selected species

Question 31

Which of the following is part of the spatial structure of a population system?

Choose one answer.

	a. diurnal cycles
	b. seasonal cycles
	c. metapopulations
	d. temporal structure

Question 32

Which of the following is true about predator-prey cycles?

Choose one answer.

	a. The cycle prevents the extinction of the predator.
	b. The predator population peaks before the prey population peaks.
	c. The cycle stabilizes both the predator population and the prey population.
	d. The cycle prevents the prey population from exceeding the carrying capacity.

Question 33

Which of the following life tables follows individuals born at the same time?

Choose one answer.

	a. static life table
	b. cohort life table
	c. fertility schedule
	d. all of the above

Question 34

Which of the following might be a detritivore?

Choose one answer.

	a. bacteria
	b. earthworm
	c. fungus
	d. all of the above

Question 35

Which of the following modifies the habitat?

Choose one answer.

	a. succession
	b. keystone species
	c. foundation species
	d. A and C

Question 36

Which of the following pairs represents a trade-off in life history traits?

Choose one answer.

	a. decreased number of young per clutch/increased survival of young
	b. increased bright coloration/increased mating opportunities
	c. increased attractiveness to females/increased mating opportunities
	d. increased mate fidelity/increased mating opportunity

Question 37

Which of the following best describes a population?

Choose one answer.

	a. the biotic and abiotic components of a local area
	b. the local area in which the individuals of a species live
	c. all the species occupying a local area and interacting with each other
	d. all individuals of a species living in a local area and interacting with each other

Question 38

A graph of logistic growth describes which of the following curves?

Choose one answer.

	a. j-shaped curve
	b. s-shaped curve
	c. u-shaped curve
	d. a series of v-shaped curves

Question 39

A life history table would contain which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. mean additional life expectancy
	b. age-specific and sex-specific reproduction
	c. age-specific and sex-specific survivorship
	d. all of the above

Question 40

A population of ten bacteria cells is put into a wine vat with enough resources to support 40,000 cells. In which generation will the population exceed carrying capacity?

Choose one answer.

	a. 11th generation
	b. 12th generation
	c. 13th generation
	d. 24th generation

Question 41

A population that contains breeding individuals of multiple ages has

Choose one answer.

	a. distinct generations.
	b. overlapping generations.
	c. age-specific reproduction.
	d. B and C

Question 42

Determine the final population size for a monogamous bird species containing ten six-year-old reproductive couples that each will produce two young per clutch and will breed annually for the next five years. Age of first reproduction is six years.

Choose one answer.

	a. N = 100 birds
	b. N = 110 birds
	c. N = 120 birds
	d. N = 340 birds

Question 43

Equilibrium in a population of sexually-reproducing organisms occurs when

Choose one answer.

	a. N = 1.
	b. N = 0.
	c. births minus deaths equals zero.
	d. all of the above

Question 44

If the number of births in a population exceeds the number of deaths, the population size is

Choose one answer.

	a. decreasing.
	b. increasing.
	c. at equilibrium.
	d. impossible to determine.

Question 45

Population ecology models are useful for

Choose one answer.

	a. predicting population change.
	b. describing population processes.
	c. understanding population processes.
	d. all of the above

Question 46

The population size of a population exhibiting logistic growth is capped primarily by

Choose one answer.

	a. carrying capacity.
	b. population density.
	c. interspecific interactions.
	d. all of the above

Question 47

Which of the following best describes a cohort?

Choose one answer.

	a. individuals of the same age within the population
	b. individuals of the same sex within the population
	c. a comparison of all individuals at the time when they were a given age
	d. individuals of the same age within the population, followed through time

Question 48

Which of the following correctly describes the difference between minimum viable population (MVP) and effective population size (EPS)?

Choose one answer.

	a. MVP is used to decide conservation issues, whereas EPS is not.
	b. EPS is used in a population viability analysis, whereas MVP is not.
	c. MVP counts total individuals in the population, whereas EPS counts only the reproductive individuals.
	d. EPS counts total individuals in the population, whereas MVP counts only the reproductive individuals.

Question 49

Which of the following could lead to unlimited population growth?

Choose one answer.

	a. no competition
	b. lack of predators
	c. a steady food supply
	d. all of the above

Question 50

Which of the following is likely to be relatively constant in K-selected species?

Choose one answer.

	a. environment
	b. population size
	c. probability of death
	d. all of the above

Question 51

Which of the following might cause a population to fluctuate in the short term yet remain relatively stable over long periods of time?

Choose one answer.

	a. predator-prey interactions
	b. variation in weather patterns
	c. variation in resource availability
	d. all of the above

Question 52

Which of the following models describes age-specific population growth?

Choose one answer.

	a. the Leslie model
	b. the Levins model
	c. the Ricker model
	d. the Lotka-Volterra model

Question 53

Determine the intrinsic rate of natural increase (r) for a population of ten bacteria that reproduces every twenty minutes and achieves a population size of 40, 960 cells after four hours.

Choose one answer.

	a. r = 2 cells
	b. r = 12 cells
	c. r = 4, 096 cells
	d. r = 40, 960 cells

Question 54

A species of New Guinean insect has invaded Queensland, Australia, by “island-hopping” across the Torres Strait. Small populations exist on each of the islands in the Strait. Which of the following is the most logical way to control this invasive species?

Choose one answer.

	a. destroy the source population in New Guinea
	b. destroy the insects as they arrive in Queensland
	c. destroy the island populations in the Torres Strait
	d. all of the above

Question 55

An invasive species will exhibit which of the following in its new habitat?

Choose one answer.

	a. competitive release
	b. exponential growth
	c. character displacement
	d. a high carrying capacity

Question 56

As a population approaches K, which of the following might increase?

Choose one answer.

	a. death
	b. migration
	c. resource availability
	d. A and B

Question 57

As population size increases, which of the following will decrease?

Choose one answer.

	a. disease
	b. predation
	c. migration
	d. resource availability

Question 58

In the functional response of predators to prey availability, as prey density increases, the predation rate

Choose one answer.

	a. decreases.
	b. fluctuates.
	c. increases.
	d. maximizes.

Question 59

In the functional response of predators to prey density, maximum predation rate is determined by

Choose one answer.

	a. rest time.
	b. search time.
	c. handling time.
	d. all of the above

Question 60

In the Lotka-Volterra model of competition, the coefficient of competition, α , represents the effects of

Choose one answer.

	a. carrying capacities.
	b. interspecific competition.
	c. intraspecific competition.
	d. all of the above

Question 61

In the Lotka-Volterra model of competition, when the coefficient of competition, α , is greater than one (α > 1), which of the following has a greater effect?

Choose one answer.

	a. carrying capacities
	b. interspecific competition
	c. intraspecific competition
	d. none of the above

Question 62

In the Lotka-Volterra model of competition, which of the following is a possible outcome?

Choose one answer.

	a. stable coexistence of the species represented by both isoclines
	b. predictable extinction of the species represented by the inner isocline
	c. unpredictable extinction of the species represented by one of the isoclines
	d. all of the above

Question 63

Metapopulations might occur in which of the following locations?

Choose one answer.

	a. island chains
	b. regions with suitable but patchy habitat
	c. mainlands with nearby island archipelagos
	d. all of the above

Question 64

Propagule pressure can be applied in which of the following ways?

Choose one answer.

	a. to ensure survival of reintroduced species in conservation efforts
	b. to determine the likelihood of establishment of an invasive species
	c. to determine the necessity of intervening in an invasive species invasion
	d. all of the above

Question 65

Two distinct bird species occupy an island. Species A has a short, broad beak and eats large seeds. Species B has a short, narrow beak and eats small seeds. If the large seed crop is greatly reduced one year, while the small seed crop remains unchanged, which of the following is likely to occur among individuals of the two species?

Choose one answer.

	a. mutualism
	b. competition
	c. resource partitioning
	d. character displacement

Question 66

Two species of bivalve mollusk occupy the Scottish coast. Species A is found above high tide mark while Species B is found in the intertidal zone. If Species B is experimentally removed from the study site, Species A colonizes the area previously occupied by Species B. In the natural ecosystem, restriction of Species A to the area above high tide is an example of:

Choose one answer.

	a. competitive release
	b. resource partitioning
	c. competitive exclusion
	d. character displacement

Question 67

Type I and Type 2 functional responses of predators to prey density differ because

Choose one answer.

	a. Type 1 is directly proportional to prey density while Type 2 is not.
	b. Type 2 is directly proportional to prey density while Type 1 is not.
	c. Type 1 reaches plateau suddenly while Type 2 reaches plateau gradually.
	d. Type 2 reaches plateau suddenly while Type 1 reaches plateau gradually.

Question 68

When prey density is low, predation rate is determined by which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. predator rest time
	b. prey handling time
	c. predator search time
	d. B and C

Question 69

Which of the following assumptions is made in the Lotka-Volterra predator-prey model?

Choose one answer.

	a. Genetic adaptation is rapid.
	b. Prey have limited resources.
	c. The environment favors one species.
	d. The predator predates only on the prey.

Question 70

Which of the following explains the stable coexistence of predator and prey?

Choose one answer.

	a. patchy habitat
	b. temporary refuges for prey
	c. re-establishment of extirpated populations by new immigrants
	d. all of the above

Question 71

Which of the following human activities might decrease species populations?

Choose one answer.

	a. harvesting salmon en route to their spawning grounds
	b. a ban on artificial lights after nightfall during the nesting season
	c. restriction of human activity in nesting grounds during the nesting season
	d. B and C

Question 72

Which of the following human activities might increase species populations?

Choose one answer.

	a. applying fertilizer to crop lands
	b. clearing land to build housing developments
	c. building on canyon rims but not in canyon valleys
	d. all of the above

Question 73

Which of the following introductions is most likely to result in establishment of a viable population?

Choose one answer.

	a. a single gravid female mouse opossum hidden in a shipment of bananas
	b. fifteen rabbits released on an Australian Outback sheep station for sport hunting
	c. frequent migration of individual members of a metapopulation into new habitat
	d. a group of 100 captive-raised cheetahs reintroduced into the same wildlife preserve simultaneously

Question 74

Which of the following is a metapopulation?

Choose one answer.

	a. small insular populations of the same species separated geographically yet interacting through occasional immigration
	b. small island populations of the same species separated geographically yet interacting through occasional immigration
	c. a mainland population and small island populations of the same species separated geographically yet interacting through occasional immigration
	d. all of the above

Question 75

Which of the following is an environmental factor allowing invasive species to outcompete native species?

Choose one answer.

	a. generalist diet
	b. lack of predators
	c. faster reproduction
	d. good colonizing ability

Question 76

Which of the following is an environmental pressure that the species in a community did not evolve with?

Choose one answer.

	a. invasive species
	b. metapopulations
	c. limited resources
	d. interspecific competition

Question 77

Which of the following is an example of resource partitioning?

Choose one answer.

	a. Two species of birds occupy a meadow: Species A hunts at night and Species B hunts during the day.
	b. Two species of mollusks occupy a coast: Species A lives above high tide and Species B lives in the intertidal zone.
	c. Two species of lizards occupy a wood land: Species A perches on sunny fence posts and Species B perches on shady branches.
	d. All of the above

Question 78

Which of the following is an intrinsic characteristic of an invasive species?

Choose one answer.

	a. r-selection
	b. exponential growth
	c. good dispersal ability
	d. none of the above

Question 79

Which of the following is true about the equation (below) from the Ricker model?

N _{t + 1} = N_t e ^{r(1 – Nt/k)}

Choose one answer.

	a. The “k” stands for the carrying capacity.
	b. The equation is a discrete population model.
	c. The number of individuals in generation t + 1 is a function of the number of individuals in the previous generation.
	d. all of the above

Question 80

Which of the following is true for Levins’s equation (dN/dt = cN(1 – N) – eN)?

Choose one answer.

	a. N stands for the population size.
	b. Levins’s equation is equivalent to the logistic growth equation.
	c. Levins’s equation is equivalent to the exponential growth equation.
	d. A and C

Question 81

Which of the following is used to assess population stability?

Choose one answer.

	a. the Leslie model
	b. the Levins model
	c. the Ricker model
	d. the Lotka-Volterra model

Question 82

Which of the following might explain why introduced mongoose populations in Queensland, Australia, failed to control the rat populations in sugar cane fields?

Choose one answer.

	a. The mongoose is diurnal while the rat is nocturnal.
	b. Ground-nesting native birds were easier to catch than rats.
	c. The mongoose could not evade Australia’s venomous snakes.
	d. all of the above

Question 83

Which of the following might occur regularly in a population that experiences predictable, seasonal resource limitations?

Choose one answer.

	a. increased disease because of decreased nutrition
	b. decreased reproduction to conserve available resources
	c. migration to a location with better resource availability
	d. increased starvation in the season of decreased resource availability

Question 84

Which of the following models predicts the probability of colonization?

Choose one answer.

	a. the Leslie model
	b. the Levins model
	c. the Ricker model
	d. the Lotka-Volterra model

Question 85

Which of the following resulted from human attempts to control the rat populations in sugar cane fields by introducing the mongoose in Jamaica and Hawai’i?

Choose one answer.

	a. The mongoose became feral.
	b. Rat populations were decimated.
	c. Populations of native ground-nesting birds were extirpated.
	d. A and C

Question 86

Which of the following stops a population from exceeding K?

Choose one answer.

	a. emigration
	b. limited resources
	c. predation, parasitism and disease
	d. all of the above

Question 87

Which of the following will not reduce a population’s size?

Choose one answer.

	a. disease
	b. mutualism
	c. parasitism
	d. interspecific competition

Question 88

Which of the following would be helpful in the conservation of a small island population?

Choose one answer.

	a. preservation of suitable habitat
	b. reduction of predator populations
	c. inclusion of the island population in a metapopulation
	d. all of the above

Question 89

Which of the following would reduce the remaining available carrying capacity of a habitat?

Choose one answer.

	a. food abundance
	b. competitive release
	c. increased predation
	d. increased population density

Question 90

Which of the following is a density-dependent factor affecting population growth?

Choose one answer.

	a. available mates
	b. disease transmission
	c. available nesting sites
	d. all of the above

Question 91

A population viability analysis (PVA) can be used to support the conservation of habitats. Why?

Choose one answer.

	a. The PVA determines the population density.
	b. The PVA determines the distribution of limited resources within the habitat.
	c. The PVA determines the minimum area needed by an individual of the population.
	d. All of the above

Question 92

A population viability analysis would take into account which of the following factors?

Choose one answer.

	a. seasonal migration
	b. metapopulation dynamics
	c. intrinsic rate of natural increase
	d. all of the above

Question 93

The greatest threat to species survival is the

Choose one answer.

	a. alteration of habitat.
	b. loss of suitable habitat.
	c. overharvesting by humans.
	d. introduction of nonnative species.

Question 94

Which of the following is an example of a biological control of a population?

Choose one answer.

	a. construction of a perimeter fence around a protected area
	b. trapping and removal of all individuals in the population
	c. introduction of a virus to which the population is susceptible
	d. application of an herbicide to which the population is susceptible

Question 95

Which of the following methods of population control would be most successful in controlling the growth of invasive kudzu in the United States?

Choose one answer.

	a. exclusion
	b. eradication
	c. chemical control
	d. biological control

Question 96

Which of the following must be completed in order to manage a population?

Choose one answer.

	a. a population census
	b. a resource management plan
	c. a population viability analysis
	d. all of the above

Question 97

Which of the following sampling methods is used by the United States every ten years to census its population?

Choose one answer.

	a. basic count
	b. transect lines
	c. mark and recapture
	d. random plot sampling

Question 98

Which of the following sampling methods should be used to census the population of a rare flower in a desert covering 500 square miles?

Choose one answer.

	a. basic count
	b. transect lines
	c. mark and recapture
	d. random plot sampling

Question 99

Which of the sampling methods commonly used will yield the actual population size?

Choose one answer.

	a. basic count
	b. mark and recapture
	c. random plot sampling
	d. none of the above

Question 100

Conservation of species and habitat is important because conservation preserves

Choose one answer.

	a. food webs.
	b. ecosystem services.
	c. potential sources of medicines.
	d. all of the above