A reaction with a delta G of zero:

Choose one answer.

	a. Requires energy
	b. Is at equilibrium
	c. Is spontaneous
	d. None of the above

Question 2

A solution with a pH of 5 is:

Choose one answer.

	a. Acidic
	b. Basic
	c. Neutral
	d. None of the above

Question 3

Alcohols contain a _________ group.

Choose one answer.

	a. Hydroxyl
	b. Sulfur
	c. Phenol
	d. None of the above

Question 4

Biologically important noncovalent bonds include:

Choose one answer.

	a. Van der Waals interactions
	b. Hydrogen bonds
	c. Electrostatic interactions
	d. All of the above

Question 5

Entropy is ______________.

Choose one answer.

	a. The degree of disorder of a system
	b. The degree of energy of a system
	c. A type of noncovalent bond
	d. A type of covalent bond

Question 6

The DNA of a eukaryotic cell is stored within the _____________.

Choose one answer.

	a. Lysosome
	b. Nucleus
	c. Ribosome
	d. Endoplasmic Reticulum

Question 7

The term "kinetics" refers to:

Choose one answer.

	a. The energy required for a reaction
	b. The disorder of a system
	c. The speed at which a reaction will occur
	d. The pH of a solution

Question 8

______ is the process by which the information in DNA is transferred to RNA.

Choose one answer.

	a. Translation
	b. Replication
	c. Transcription
	d. Ubiquitination

Question 9

The strongest bonds that are present in biochemical compounds are ______________.

Choose one answer.

	a. Ionic bonds
	b. Covalent bonds
	c. Hydrogen bonds
	d. Van der Waals interactions

Question 10

A chiral compound _________________.

Choose one answer.

	a. Is non-superimposable on its mirror image
	b. Is the same as its mirror image
	c. Is inorganic
	d. Contains a sulfur atom

Question 11

A zwitterion ________________.

Choose one answer.

	a. Has a positive charge
	b. Has a negative charge
	c. Overall, has no charge
	d. All of the above

Question 12

All amino acids contain both a(n) ______ and a(n) ________ group.

Choose one answer.

	a. Hydrogen, carbohydrate
	b. Amine, carboxylic acid
	c. Sulfur, amine
	d. None of the above

Question 13

Essential amino acids:

Choose one answer.

	a. Are made by organisms
	b. Must be obtained from dietary sources
	c. Are made from DNA
	d. Include proline

Question 14

The first reaction of amino acid degradation is?

Choose one answer.

	a. Deamination
	b. Decarboxylation
	c. Cyclization
	d. None of the above

Question 15

The only amino acid without a chiral center is _____________.

Choose one answer.

	a. Proline
	b. Methionine
	c. Alanine
	d. Glycine

Question 16

There are ______ common amino acids.

Choose one answer.

	a. 15
	b. 25
	c. 20
	d. 10

Question 17

______ is the initiating amino acid of most newly synthesized proteins.

Choose one answer.

	a. Proline
	b. Alanine
	c. Glycine
	d. Methionine

Question 18

_____________ is an example of a hydrophilic amino acid.

Choose one answer.

	a. Lysine
	b. Leucine
	c. Methionine
	d. Tryptophan

Question 19

_____________ is an example of a hydrophobic amino acid.

Choose one answer.

	a. Glutamic acid
	b. Lysine
	c. Arginine
	d. Leucine

Question 20

Nonessential amino acids are:

Choose one answer.

	a. Provided in the diet
	b. Synthesized by mammals
	c. Both A and B
	d. None of the above

Question 21

A(n) _________ is a short protein tag that attaches to and targets proteins for degradation.

Choose one answer.

	a. Peptide
	b. Ubiquitin
	c. Alanine
	d. Urea

Question 22

Protein secondary structures include:

Choose one answer.

	a. Loops
	b. alpha helices
	c. beta sheets
	d. All of the above

Question 23

Protein synthesis is carried out by __________.

Choose one answer.

	a. Mitochondria
	b. Chromosomes
	c. Ribosomes
	d. Lysosomes

Question 24

The amino acid _______ places certain constraints on the protein backbone.

Choose one answer.

	a. Leucine
	b. Alanine
	c. Proline
	d. Glycine

Question 25

The difference between a peptide and a protein is ____________.

Choose one answer.

	a. Length
	b. Bond formation
	c. Subunits
	d. All of the above

Question 26

The formation of a dimer refers to a protein's ___________.

Choose one answer.

	a. Primary structure
	b. Tertiary structure
	c. Secondary structure
	d. None of the above

Question 27

The tertiary structure of a protein refers to its __________.

Choose one answer.

	a. Overall 3D shape
	b. Multisubunit composition
	c. Amino acid sequence
	d. None of the above

Question 28

The ______ carries out protein degradation.

Choose one answer.

	a. Proteosome
	b. Lysosome
	c. Ribosome
	d. Chromosome

Question 29

________ aid in protein folding.

Choose one answer.

	a. Chromosomes
	b. Chaperones
	c. Proteosome
	d. None of the above

Question 30

Amino acids are linked by a(n) _______ bond to form a protein.

Choose one answer.

	a. Hydrophobic
	b. Peptide
	c. Ionic
	d. All of the above

Question 31

Each of the following is one of the six classes of enzyme catalysts, except:

Choose one answer.

	a. Ligases
	b. Kinases
	c. Transferases
	d. Isomerases

Question 32

Enzymes within metabolic pathways can be regulated by ____________.

Choose one answer.

	a. Allosteric enzymes
	b. Post translational modifications
	c. Localization
	d. All of the above

Question 33

In competitive inhibition, the competitor binds to ________________.

Choose one answer.

	a. The substrate
	b. The substrate binding site
	c. Distant to the substrate binding site
	d. None of the above

Question 34

kcat refers to _________________.

Choose one answer.

	a. The maximum rate at which an enzyme can convert substrate to product
	b. The maximum amount of product produced in a reaction
	c. The free energy of a reaction
	d. None of the above

Question 35

Kinases are enzymes that add a(n) _____ group to proteins.

Choose one answer.

	a. Hydrogen
	b. Nitrogen
	c. Phosphoryl
	d. Alcohol

Question 36

The rate of an enzymatic reaction can be regulated by __________.

Choose one answer.

	a. pH
	b. Temperature
	c. Concentration
	d. All of the above

Question 37

_______ are derived from vitamins and are necessary for the function of some enzymes.

Choose one answer.

	a. Helicases
	b. Cofactors
	c. Carbohydrates
	d. None of the above

Question 38

________ is an example of a post translational modification of a protein.

Choose one answer.

	a. Acetylation
	b. Phosphorylation
	c. Ubiquitination
	d. All of the above

Question 39

Enzymes act as catalysts to ___________________.

Choose one answer.

	a. Decrease the activation energy of a reaction
	b. Increase the rate of a reaction
	c. Mediate the conversion of substrate to product
	d. All of the above

Question 40

An important product of glycolysis is ____________.

Choose one answer.

	a. Glucose
	b. ATP
	c. Lectins
	d. Both A and B

Question 41

Carbohydrates are also known as ____________.

Choose one answer.

	a. Sugars
	b. Starches
	c. Fats
	d. A and B

Question 42

Carbohydrates are commonly used as ___________.

Choose one answer.

	a. A source of energy
	b. An amino acid source
	c. A source of nitrogen
	d. None of the above

Question 43

Disaccharides are formed by ______________.

Choose one answer.

	a. The condensation of two monosaccharides
	b. Hydrolysis of a polysaccharide
	c. Both A and B
	d. Neither A or B

Question 44

In animals, the process of gluconeogenesis occurs in the __________.

Choose one answer.

	a. Fat
	b. Liver
	c. Spleen
	d. Gall bladder

Question 45

Lectins are ____________.

Choose one answer.

	a. DNA binding proteins
	b. Lipid binding proteins
	c. Carbohydrate binding proteins
	d. None of the above

Question 46

Protein glycosylation takes place in the ____________.

Choose one answer.

	a. Nucleus
	b. Cell membrane
	c. Golgi apparatus
	d. Lysosome

Question 47

Starch is an example of a ___________.

Choose one answer.

	a. Monosaccharide
	b. Disaccharide
	c. Polysaccharide
	d. Trisaccharide

Question 48

Sucrose, aka table sugar, is composed of ____________.

Choose one answer.

	a. Glucose
	b. Fructose
	c. Both A and B
	d. Neither A or B

Question 49

Fischer projections convey useful information about _____________.

Choose one answer.

	a. Electron positions
	b. 3D structural positioning
	c. Resonance
	d. Bond lengths

Question 50

ATP facilitates the occurrence of energetically unfavorable reactions via ___________.

Choose one answer.

	a. Phosphoryl transfer
	b. Energy coupling
	c. ATP to ADP conversion
	d. All of the above

Question 51

Both DNA and RNA are composed of three important parts, which are:

Choose one answer.

	a. Glucose, side chains, phosphate group
	b. Nitrogenouse base, phosphate group, sugar
	c. Nitrogenous base, peptide bond, lipid
	d. Phosphate group, sugar, side chain

Question 52

Cytosine makes _______ with guanine when base paired in DNA.

Choose one answer.

	a. Three hydrogen bonds
	b. Two hydrogen bonds
	c. Three peptide bonds
	d. Three covalent bonds

Question 53

DNA is synthesized in a _____ direction.

Choose one answer.

	a. 3' to 5'
	b. 5' to 3'
	c. Top to bottom
	d. Left to right

Question 54

Double stranded DNA takes on a __________ structure.

Choose one answer.

	a. Beta sheet
	b. Looped
	c. Double helix
	d. A-form helix

Question 55

In the cell, _____ is used as energy currency.

Choose one answer.

	a. UTP
	b. Fat
	c. ATP
	d. AMP

Question 56

The correct pairing of bases in DNA is __________.

Choose one answer.

	a. A-G; C-T
	b. A-C; G-T
	c. A-T; C-G
	d. A-U; C-G

Question 57

The DNA chromosome of bacteria consists of ___________.

Choose one answer.

	a. A circular double stranded DNA
	b. A circular single stranded DNA
	c. A linear double stranded DNA
	d. A linear single stranded DNA

Question 58

What is the base that is used by RNA but not DNA?

Choose one answer.

	a. Guanine
	b. Uracil
	c. Thymine
	d. Cytosine

Question 59

What type of base is adenine?

Choose one answer.

	a. Purine
	b. Pyrimidine
	c. Both A and B
	d. Neither A and B

Question 60

The sugar used in RNA is ____________.

Choose one answer.

	a. Deoxyribose
	b. Dideoxyribose
	c. Ribose
	d. Glucose

Question 61

Fatty acids contain ________________.

Choose one answer.

	a. A carboxyl group and hydrocarbon chain
	b. A phosphate group and hydrocarbon chain
	c. A sugar group and hydrocarbon chain
	d. Only a hydrocarbon chain

Question 62

Glycerolphospholipids create a double layer lipid membrane, such as the cell membrane, because of _____________.

Choose one answer.

	a. Their high energy phospho group
	b. Their hydrophilic heads and hydrophobic tails
	c. Their unsaturated tails
	d. Their ability to covalently bond to each other

Question 63

Lipids are the starting material of important biological molecules, including ___________.

Choose one answer.

	a. Steroids
	b. DNA
	c. Carbohydrates
	d. All of the above

Question 64

Lipids play a role in which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. Energy storage
	b. Membrane structure
	c. Cell signaling
	d. All of the above

Question 65

Phospholipids can be composed of _______________.

Choose one answer.

	a. Fatty acids
	b. Glycerol
	c. Sphingomyelin
	d. All of the above

Question 66

The difference between saturated and unsaturated fatty acids is ______________.

Choose one answer.

	a. The number of hydrocarbon chains
	b. The length of the hydrocarbon chain
	c. The presence of single or double bonds in the hydrocarbon chain
	d. All of the above

Question 67

The fluidity of the cell membrane is determined by ___________.

Choose one answer.

	a. The lipid content
	b. The amount of cholesterol present
	c. The number of saturated and unsaturated fatty acids present
	d. All of the above

Question 68

Triacylglycerol is composed of ___________.

Choose one answer.

	a. Glycerol and fatty acids
	b. Glycerol and long chain alcohols
	c. Glycerol and cholesterol
	d. None of the above

Question 69

Which of the following are composed of lipids?

Choose one answer.

	a. Waxes
	b. Cholesterol
	c. Triacylglecerols
	d. All of the above

Question 70

Glycolysis gives a net yield of __________.

Choose one answer.

	a. 8 moles ATP per glucose
	b. 1 mole ATP per glucose
	c. 2 moles ATP per glucose
	d. 3 moles ATP per glucose

Question 71

Glycolysis takes place in the _________.

Choose one answer.

	a. Cytosol
	b. Mitochondria
	c. Nucleus
	d. Golgi

Question 72

In the citrate cycle, energy from the oxidation of acetyl-CoA is converted to _____________.

Choose one answer.

	a. 4 moles ATP, 6 moles FADH2
	b. 3 moles, NADH, 1 mole FADH2, 1 mole GTP, 2 CO2
	c. 2 moles NADH, 2 moles FADH2, 2 ATP
	d. 1 mole NADH, 1 mole GTP, 4 CO2

Question 73

Oxidative phosphorylation occurs in the _______.

Choose one answer.

	a. Nucleus
	b. Cytosol
	c. Mitochondria
	d. Cell membrane

Question 74

The complete oxidation of glucose to CO2 and H2O results in a yield of __________.

Choose one answer.

	a. 38 ATP/glucose
	b. 42 ATP/glucose
	c. 60 ATP/glucose
	d. 32 ATP/glucose

Question 75

The electron transport system links oxidation of NADH and FADH2 to _____________.

Choose one answer.

	a. Glucose synthesis
	b. Ethanol fermentation
	c. ATP synthesis
	d. GTP synthesis

Question 76

The input and output of glycolysis is ____________.

Choose one answer.

	a. Two molecules glucose, 6 molecules CO2
	b. One molecule glucose, 2 molecules pyruvate
	c. One molecule glucose, 4 molecules pyruvate
	d. One molecule glycogen, 2 molecules pyruvate

Question 77

The sugar on ATP is _______________.

Choose one answer.

	a. Deoxyribose
	b. Glucose
	c. Cholesterol
	d. Ribose

Question 78

The __________ is a hub of cellular metabolism because it links the oxidation of carbohydrates, fatty acids, and proteins to ATP synthesis.

Choose one answer.

	a. TCA/citrate cycle
	b. Urea cycle
	c. Glycolysis cycle
	d. Pentose pathway

Question 79

True or False: Glycolysis requires oxygen.

Choose one answer.

	a. True
	b. False

Question 80

Under aerobic conditions, the pyruvate produced during glycolysis can go on to ________.

Choose one answer.

	a. The pentose pathway
	b. Oxidative phosphorylation
	c. The urea cycle
	d. All of the above

Question 81

Rank the following, from highest to lowest, in terms of energy: AMP, ATP, ADP?

Choose one answer.

	a. ATP, ADP, AMP
	b. AMP, ADP, ATP
	c. ADP, ATP, AMP
	d. ATP, AMP, ADP

Question 82

A Holliday Junction structure occurs during which process?

Choose one answer.

	a. Recombination
	b. Replication
	c. Transcription
	d. Translation

Question 83

DNA is synthesized in a _______ direction.

Choose one answer.

	a. Left to right
	b. Top to bottom
	c. 5' to 3'
	d. 3' to 5'

Question 84

DNA replication is carried out by a ________ enzyme.

Choose one answer.

	a. Helicase
	b. Polymerase
	c. Kinase
	d. Topoisomerase

Question 85

DNA replication is semi-conservative. What does this mean?

Choose one answer.

	a. Half the total DNA is copied
	b. Each DNA strand serves as a template during replication
	c. Only some base pairs are altered during replication
	d. None of the above

Question 86

DNA serves as a template for which type of RNA?

Choose one answer.

	a. mRNA
	b. rRNA
	c. tRNA
	d. All of the above

Question 87

There are three types of RNA polymerases in eukaryotic cells. RNA polymerase I transcribes ______, RNA polymerase II transcribes _______, and RNA polymerase III mainly transcribes _________.

Choose one answer.

	a. Introns, mRNA, rRNA
	b. rRNA, mRNA, tRNA
	c. tRNA, introns, rRNA
	d. mRNA, tRNA, rRNA

Question 88

Which of the following are post-transcriptional modifications of RNA?

Choose one answer.

	a. Cap addition
	b. Poly A tail addition
	c. Intron removal
	d. All of the above

Question 89

_________ enzymes maintain the torsional stress of DNA.

Choose one answer.

	a. Helicase
	b. Topoisomerase
	c. Kinase
	d. Restriction

Question 90

Activation of receptor tyrosine kinases results in ____________.

Choose one answer.

	a. The opening of ion channels
	b. The phosphorylation of the receptor
	c. Membrane potential alterations
	d. The exchange of GTP for GDP

Question 91

Intracellular pathways are altered through extracellular molecules binding to __________.

Choose one answer.

	a. Polymerases
	b. Ligases
	c. Receptors
	d. All of the above

Question 92

Molecules that play an important role in cell adhesion and structure include _________.

Choose one answer.

	a. Integrins
	b. Cadherins
	c. Selectins
	d. All of the above

Question 93

Steroids act as signaling molecules by __________________.

Choose one answer.

	a. Binding to extracellular domains of receptor molecules
	b. Binding to the plasma membrane
	c. Binding to receptors internal to the cell
	d. None of the above

Question 94

True or false: Ligand binding to receptors can result in wide-spread gene expression changes via signal amplification.

Choose one answer.

	a. True
	b. False

Question 95

Stimulation of a G protein coupled receptor results in __________.

Choose one answer.

	a. The flow of ions through the receptor
	b. Phosphorylation of the receptor
	c. The exchange of GDP for GTP
	d. None of the above

Question 96

ELISAs use __________, enabling the measurement of specific proteins in a solution.

Choose one answer.

	a. PCR
	b. Purification
	c. Antibodies
	d. None of the above

Question 97

In a Southern blot, probes are used to _________________.

Choose one answer.

	a. Hybridize to a specific sequence of DNA
	b. Hybridize to a specific sequence of RNA
	c. Amplify a specific piece of DNA
	d. Degrade a specific piece of RNA

Question 98

PCR is a valuable tool for analyzing DNA because ___________________.

Choose one answer.

	a. It allows for the exponential amplification of a small amount of starting material
	b. It takes a short amount of time
	c. The DNA sequence amplified need not be known
	d. All of the above

Question 99

During SDS-PAGE, proteins are primarily separated according to their _______________.

Choose one answer.

	a. Mass
	b. Shape
	c. Charge
	d. All of the above