If you cross homozygous red and white snapdragons, then all offspring will have pink flowers.

Choose one answer.

	a. This is a case of incomplete dominance.
	b. This is a case of dominant inheritance.
	c. This is a case of recessive inheritance.
	d. This is a case of Mendelian inheritance.

Question 2

In a paternity case, the husband claims that based on his blood type, he cannot possibly be the father of his wife's child. The husband's blood type is A, the wife's blood type is AB, and the child has B blood type.

Choose one answer.

	a. The husband is right; he cannot be the father. The father of the child must have AB or B blood type.
	b. The husband is right; he cannot be the father. The father of the child must have O blood type.
	c. The husband is wrong. He can be the father, if his genotype is AO.
	d. The husband is wrong. He can be the father, if his genotype is AA.

Question 3

Jane and Joe are planning to have a child. They both have brown eyes and Bb genotype. They also have wavy hair and Ww genotype. What is the probability that their child will have blue eyes and straight hair? Genotype ww is responsible for straight hair.

Choose one answer.

	a. 1 in 16
	b. 2 in 16
	c. 3 in 16
	d. 9 in 16

Question 4

Jane Doe has heterozygous brown eyes, and she claims that the father of her blue-eyed son is Joe Brown. Joe Brown has homozygous brown eyes. Can Joe Doe be the father of Jane's blue-eyed son?

Choose one answer.

	a. Yes, because Jane has Bb genotype and Joe has BB genotype, where B stands for the dominant brown eye and b stands for the recessive blue eye. There is a 50% chance that their children would be blue-eyed and have Bb or BB genotype.
	b. Yes, because Jane has Bb genotype and Joe has BB genotype, where B stands for the dominant brown eye and b stands for the recessive blue eye. All of their children should be blue-eyed and have Bb or BB genotype.
	c. No, because Jane has BB genotype and Joe has Bb genotype, where B stands for the dominant brown eye and b stands for the recessive blue eye. There is a 50% chance that their children would be brown-eyed and have Bb or BB genotype.
	d. No, because Jane has Bb genotype and Joe has BB genotype, where B stands for the dominant brown eye and b stands for the recessive blue eye. All of their children should be brown-eyed and have Bb or BB genotype.

Question 5

Differentially expressed transcripts in tissues, cells, and organisms can be identified with the following method.

Choose one answer.

	a. Conventional PCR
	b. RT-PCR
	c. Real-time RT-PCR
	d. Subtractive hybridization

Question 6

Four cycles result in ______ times amplification during PCR.

Choose one answer.

	a. 4
	b. 8
	c. 16
	d. 32

Question 7

Metabolite-sensing can be achieved not only with proteins, but with RNA as well. RNA molecules that can modify metabolism in the cell upon binding a metabolite are called ________.

Choose one answer.

	a. Ribozymes
	b. RNAi
	c. MicroRNA
	d. Riboswithes

Question 8

The synthesis of a C. reinhardtii-adapted gfp resulted in the cgfp gene. The cgfp gene is efficiently expressing GFP protein in this alga because _______.

Choose one answer.

	a. In the cgfp gene, the codon usage is C. reinhardtii-conform.
	b. The cgfp gene is expressing a different GFP protein sequence.
	c. The cgfp gene is expressing a GFP protein with different color.
	d. In the cgfp gene, there are fewer introns.

Question 9

Transcript levels in different tissues, cells, and organisms can be compared quantitatively with the following method.

Choose one answer.

	a. Conventional PCR
	b. RT-PCR
	c. Real-time RT-PCR
	d. Subtractive hybridization.

Question 10

FISH is an in situ hybridization technique that is using __________ probes to detect homologous nucleic acid sequences in tissues and on chromosomes.

Choose one answer.

	a. Radioactive
	b. Fluorescent
	c. Silver-enhanced gold
	d. Photoenhanced

Question 11

A genomic DNA sequence that is similar to a functional gene sequence but appears to be non-functional is called ______.

Choose one answer.

	a. Junk DNA
	b. Pseudogene
	c. Long repeat
	d. Non-coding region

Question 12

Chromosomal walking has been used during the early days of genome sequencing. How does this protocol work?

Choose one answer.

	a. Overlapping chromosome fragments are sequenced continuously without leaving any gap behind.
	b. Both ends of random chromosome fragments are sequenced and then the fragments are assembled using computer programs.
	c. Scaffolds are sequenced and contigs are built from scaffolds.
	d. Chromosomes are sequenced between FISH-stained locations and assembled according to these known cytological markers.

Question 13

Comparative genomics can be used to identify similarities and differences between the genomes of species. Differences highlight the ______ of the species, and similarities point toward a(n) _______.

Choose one answer.

	a. Divergence, common ancestor
	b. Distance, common ancestor
	c. Divergence, distance
	d. Distance, adaptation

Question 14

Comparing the human and the fruit fly genome has revealed that the ratio of noncoding to coding sequences is _____ in the human genome.

Choose one answer.

	a. Higher
	b. Lower
	c. Unchanged
	d. Negligible

Question 15

DNA microarray technology cannot be used to identify

Choose one answer.

	a. Genes which are not expressed differentially in tumor and normal cells.
	b. Genes which are overexpressed in normal cells.
	c. Genes which are overexpressed in tumor cells.
	d. Promoter sequences which are particularly active in tumor cells.

Question 16

Genome projects generate open access databases and provide programs to analyze sequence data. Which of the following is not a typical task in database mining?

Choose one answer.

	a. RNA-protein interaction prediction.
	b. Gene prediction.
	c. Open reading frame prediction.
	d. Nucleic acid sequence translation to protein sequence.

Question 17

Initially, the genome projects sequenced the less condensed chromosomal regions. Recently, new projects have started with the goal to sequence the more condensed chromosomal regions as well. Which chromosomal region has been sequenced first by genome projects?

Choose one answer.

	a. Euchromatin
	b. Heterochromatin
	c. Telomere
	d. Centromere

Question 18

Microarray technology employs high throughput protocols for the analysis of complex nucleic acid samples. Which of the following is very unlikely in a DNA microarray protocol?

Choose one answer.

	a. Short known DNA sequences can be synthesized chemically directly on chip.
	b. All genes of an organism can be bound in microarrays, and these arrays can be used in differential gene expression studies.
	c. Microarrays made from the genome of an organism are typically probed with a whole genomic DNA probe made from the same organism.
	d. Fluorescent probes can be used to identify genes on microarrays.

Question 19

Microsatellites are also called short tandem repeats (STRs), and they are typically present in non-coding regions. STR-based technology is the most reliable method of DNA biometrics in our time. DNA typing is used to establish parent-child relationship as well. Assume that a couple is expecting a child. The man has 11 and 14 repeats of AAGT at the TPOX locus on his homologous 2nd chromosome pair, and the woman has 6 and 10 repeats of AAGT at the TPOX locus on her homologous 2nd chromosome pair. What TPOX repeat combination cannot be their child's TPOX repeat pair?

Choose one answer.

	a. 10 and 6
	b. 11 and 6
	c. 14 and 6
	d. 11 and 10

Question 20

RFLP can be used for genotyping including medical diagnosis. This is a complex method using ______.

Choose one answer.

	a. DNA extraction, restriction enzymes, and Southern blot
	b. DNA extraction, PCR, and Southern blot
	c. DNA extraction, restriction enzymes, and Western blot
	d. DNA extraction, PCR, and Western blot

Question 21

Shotgun sequencing is the most efficient genome sequencing protocol used today. How does this protocol work?

Choose one answer.

	a. Overlapping chromosome fragments are sequenced continuously without leaving any gap behind.
	b. Both ends of random chromosome fragments are sequenced and then the fragments are assembled using computer programs.
	c. Scaffolds are sequenced and contigs are built from scaffolds.
	d. Chromosomes are sequenced between FISH-stained locations and assembled according to these known cytological markers.

Question 22

Sickle cell anemia is an SNP. An SNP is a small genetic change, which is characterized by ______.

Choose one answer.

	a. A single nucleotide change.
	b. A single codon change.
	c. A single amino acid change.
	d. A small genetic change.

Question 23

Tandem repeats may contribute to the morphological variation in a population. There is a correlation between the activity of some transcription factors and certain traits, for example, head shape and number of digits of the paw. The activity of Runx-2 transcription factor is influenced by tandem repeats within its open reading frame. These tandem repeats result in poly-Q and poly-A amino acid repeats in the Runx-2 protein. What characteristics of the repeats correlate with transcription factor activity?

Choose one answer.

	a. The ratio of poly-Q and poly-A
	b. The total length of poly-Q and poly-A
	c. Only the length of poly-Q
	d. Only the length of poly-A

Question 24

The biotech industry is interested in ___________ because it provides access to a growing number of DNA clones encoding enzymes that work under unusual conditions.

Choose one answer.

	a. Proteomics
	b. Metagenomics
	c. Metabolomics
	d. Proteomics

Question 25

The frequency of the crossing over between genes on a chromosome is linked to their distance from each other. Consider A, B, and C genes that are on the same chromosome. The recombination frequency between A and B is 10%, it is 30% between B and C, and it is 20% between A and C. What is the order of A, B, and C genes on the chromosome?

Choose one answer.

	a. ABC
	b. ACB
	c. CAB
	d. CBA

Question 26

The genome of species that are available only through environmental sampling is studied in _____ projects.

Choose one answer.

	a. Metagenomics
	b. Envirogenomics
	c. Nature genomics
	d. Microbiomics

Question 27

The precise order and spacing of the genes on a chromosome is provided by a(n) ______.

Choose one answer.

	a. Genetic map.
	b. Physical map
	c. Open reading frame
	d. Gene sequence

Question 28

Why are model organisms useful in human genome research?

Choose one answer.

	a. Model organisms have genes similar to human genes.
	b. Model organisms are mainly used to highlight the differences between animals and humans.
	c. Model organisms can attract animal-loving students to genomics.
	d. A focus on the differences contributes to our understanding of genetic inheritance.

Question 29

_________ is employing a variety of analytical techniques while attempting to identify all small molecules in the cell. It provides a snapshot of the physiological state of the cell.

Choose one answer.

	a. Proteomics
	b. Metagenomics
	c. Metabolomics
	d. Proteomics

Question 30

Recombinant gametes are produced with ________.

Choose one answer.

	a. Crossing over of the sister chromatids during meiosis I.
	b. Crossing over of the non-sister chromatids during meiosis I.
	c. Crossing over of the sister chromatids during meiosis II.
	d. Crossing over of the non-sister chromatids during meiosis II.

Question 31

BioBricks are used in the synthetic biology to _______, using restriction enzyme-based or PCR-based methodology.

Choose one answer.

	a. Design gene therapy
	b. Clone animals
	c. Combine functional units of different proteins
	d. Generate novel cell types

Question 32

Biomaterials interact with biological systems, for example, with stem cells. The characteristics of the biomaterial influence _____, thus biomaterials are in the center of new tissue engineering applications.

Choose one answer.

	a. Cell differentiation
	b. Meiosis
	c. The locus of gene insertion
	d. Codon preference

Question 33

Exon shuffling between genes can be mediated by ________.

Choose one answer.

	a. Transposable elements
	b. Proteases
	c. Epigenetic changes
	d. DNA methylation

Question 34

Glycosylation and subsequent phosphorylation are essential in targeting enzymes into the _____. In I-cell disease, the glycosylated enzymes are not getting phosphorylated in the Golgi, thus the enzymes are not targeted appropriately.

Choose one answer.

	a. Lysosomes
	b. Extracellular space
	c. Nucleus
	d. Golgi

Question 35

Immunological techniques are utilizing specific antigen-antibody interactions to extract either the antibody or the antigen from a mixture. Examples are _________.

Choose one answer.

	a. Affinity chromatography and immunoprecipitation
	b. Exclusion chromatography and immunoprecipitation
	c. Western blot and exclusion chromatography
	d. Western blot and Northern blot

Question 36

In a biological environment, protein folding is facilitated by _____.

Choose one answer.

	a. Higher temperatures utilizing the increased Brownian motion
	b. The presence of complementing surfaces
	c. Processing enzymes which seal the protein in the right conformation with chemical bonds
	d. Chaperones that prevent premature aggregation of hydrophobic regions

Question 37

Mass spectrometry can generate a characteristic peptide map of a protein and generate peptide sequence with _______ technology.

Choose one answer.

	a. Dideoxy sequencing
	b. Edman degradation
	c. MALDI
	d. MS-MS

Question 38

Protein sequence can be predicted from cDNA or gDNA sequences, but it can also be determined directly by removing the amino acids one by one from the N-terminal end of the protein. This chemical degradation is called ________.

Choose one answer.

	a. Dideoxy sequencing
	b. Edman degradation
	c. MALDI
	d. MS-MS

Question 39

Recombinant proteins expressed in eukaryotes ______________ , which is often essential for biologically active proteins.

Choose one answer.

	a. Can be modified posttranslationally
	b. Cannot be modified posttranslationally
	c. Are spontaneously secreted
	d. Are synthesized on ribosomes

Question 40

The DAPA method is a protein array making technology, which uses a DNA array template and translates this template to multiple copies of protein array on ______.

Choose one answer.

	a. A separate surface from the DNA
	b. The surface as the DNA
	c. An antibody capture array
	d. A functional array

Question 41

The expression of an inserted foreign gene can be _____ influenced by the chromosomal site wherein it is inserted.

Choose one answer.

	a. Greatly
	b. Hardly
	c. Never
	d. Temporarily

Question 42

Transcription and translation in eukaryotes happen __________, and gene expression is regulated by ____.

Choose one answer.

	a. Simultaneously, enhancers
	b. Simultaneously, operons
	c. Consecutively, enhancers
	d. Consecutively, operons

Question 43

_____________ separates proteins based on their molecular weight and then uses antibodies to identify specific proteins.

Choose one answer.

	a. Eastern blot
	b. Northern blot
	c. Southern blot
	d. Western blot

Question 44

A variety of electrophoresis techniques are currently employed in biotechnology. These techniques separate substances utilizing their __________.

Choose one answer.

	a. Size
	b. Shape
	c. Electric charge
	d. Polarity

Question 45

A typical plant cell tolerates well if it is placed into hypotonic solution. When protoplasts are placed into hypotonic solution, they ______.

Choose one answer.

	a. Burst
	b. Stay intact
	c. Shrink
	d. Divide

Question 46

Bacillus thuringiensis is the source of Bt toxin inserted into the Bt plants genome, and Bacillus anthracis is the cause of anthrax. These bacteria differ in their _______ .

Choose one answer.

	a. Genomes
	b. Viruses
	c. Plasmids
	d. Vectors

Question 47

Chloramphenicol acetyl transferase (GUS) and green fluorescent protein (GFP) are often used as ________ in transgenic plants.

Choose one answer.

	a. Reporter genes
	b. Selection genes
	c. Detection genes
	d. Promoters

Question 48

Cre-lox technology is used to generate _________ transgenic organisms.

Choose one answer.

	a. Knock-out
	b. Random insertion
	c. Mutated
	d. Inverted

Question 49

Culturing cells in vitro requires _________ the isolated cells.

Choose one answer.

	a. Providing extracellular matrix for
	b. Adding Ti plasmid to the growth medium of
	c. Inducing de-differentiation of
	d. Inducing viral gene transfer of

Question 50

Human lactoferrin has been introduced into rice to make it able to bind the trace element _____.

Choose one answer.

	a. Zinc
	b. Iron
	c. Selenium
	d. flavin

Question 51

_____ cells have the ability to differentiate into any cell type of the multicellular organism.

Choose one answer.

	a. Somatic
	b. Multipotent stem
	c. Totipotent stem
	d. Germ

Question 52

Selective breeding has been historically used to produce offspring with desirable traits. This technique requires careful selection of the parents with ______________.

Choose one answer.

	a. Only recessive homozygous
	b. Only homozygous traits
	c. Only dominant genes
	d. A desired combination of recessive and dominant genes

Question 53

Animal pharming is the use of transgenic animals for the production of protein drugs. Frequently used animals for pharming are goats, cows, and sheep, wherein the expression of transgenic protein is typically directed to the ________.

Choose one answer.

	a. Hair shaft
	b. Saliva
	c. Blood
	d. Milk

Question 54

Chimeras are also called _______, since they have cells with different genomes.

Choose one answer.

	a. Genetic mosaics
	b. Hybridomas
	c. Genetic mixtures
	d. Hybrids

Question 55

Dolly, the first cloned mamma, has been generated by __________ technique.

Choose one answer.

	a. Somatic cell nuclear transfer
	b. Germ line nuclear transfer
	c. In vitro fertilization
	d. Recombineering

Question 56

Dolly's premature death is linked to __________ telomere regions.

Choose one answer.

	a. Her shorter than average
	b. Her longer than average
	c. The absence of the
	d. The branching

Question 57

Generating a cognitive deficit database of mouse mutants is a _________ approach, since it involves behavioral phenotype studies of already established mutant strains.

Choose one answer.

	a. Forward genetic
	b. Reverse genetic
	c. Transgenic
	d. Mutagenic

Question 58

Knock-in, Knock-out, and conditional transgenic lines must all use _____ sequences at both sides of the chromosomal regions to be changed.

Choose one answer.

	a. Substantial homologous
	b. Minimal homologous
	c. Substantial heterologous
	d. Minimal heterologous

Question 59

Many Drosophila melanogaster mutants have been generated with random ____. It is expected that targeted transgenesis is aided by ________ in fruit fly genomics.

Choose one answer.

	a. Site specific insertion; neutralization of position effects
	b. Neutralization of position effects; site specific insertion
	c. P element insertion; recombinases and integrases
	d. Recombinases and integrases; P element insertion.

Question 60

Transgenic mosquitoes expressing an antigen in their saliva _________ Leishmania infection in a murine model.

Choose one answer.

	a. offer protection against
	b. enhance
	c. attenuate insect bites delivering
	d. intensify

Question 61

_______ can eliminate the risk of children born with diseases due to the combination of genes inherited from their parents.

Choose one answer.

	a. Preimplantation genetic diagnosis
	b. Postimplantation genetic diagnosis
	c. Prefertilization genetic diagnosis
	d. Genetic counseling

Question 62

GloFish is transgenic zebra fish expressing genetic variants of the jellyfish _____.

Choose one answer.

	a. Blue fluorescent protein
	b. Green fluorescent protein
	c. Red fluorescent protein
	d. Yellow fluorescent protein

Question 63

Adenovirus has been used to introduce the functional gene in the case of several single gene locus defects, but several cases of leukemia have been reported when patients developed the disease due to the ______ of the introduced functional gene.

Choose one answer.

	a. Insertion position
	b. Activity
	c. High copy number
	d. Inactivity

Question 64

An epigenetic factor is ______.

Choose one answer.

	a. DNA methylation
	b. Chromosomal rearrangement
	c. Missense mutation
	d. Chromosomal inversion

Question 65

Consider a population where there are only brown-eyed and blue-eyed individuals, and blue eye color is recessive and brown is dominant. No other alleles influence the eye color in this population. Sixteen percent of this population is blue-eyed. What is the frequency of the blue eye color allele in the population?

Choose one answer.

	a. 16 %
	b. 30%
	c. 40%
	d. 90%

Question 66

Gene therapy protocols are already in use to introduce functional genes into the patient's own ______ and return the _______ into the patient.

Choose one answer.

	a. Stem cells; virus transformed cells
	b. Blood cells; virus transformed cells
	c. Stem cells; mutated cells
	d. Blood cells; mutated cells

Question 67

HIV gene therapy, which is currently in clinical trial phase, is disrupting the HIV binding receptors on T cell using a specific _______.

Choose one answer.

	a. Zinc-finger nuclease
	b. Protease
	c. Antibody
	d. Lipase

Question 68

In prodrug therapy, an enzyme is delivered to ______ cell, and a prodrug that can be activated by this enzyme is delivered to _______ cell. The drug that is released by the enzyme from the prodrug should be cytotoxic.

Choose one answer.

	a. Every; every
	b. Every; a tumor
	c. A tumor, a tumor
	d. A tumor, every

Question 69

Red-green color blindness is an X-linked recessive trait. What is the probability that the son of a man with normal vision and a carrier woman will be red-green color blind?

Choose one answer.

	a. 0%
	b. 25%
	c. 50%
	d. 75%

Question 70

Sickle cell anemia is a _______ mutation in the globin gene. It is a deadly disease of homozygote individuals, but it offers protection against _______ in heterozygotes.

Choose one answer.

	a. Point; malaria parasite
	b. Nonsense; malaria parasite
	c. Point; papillomavirus
	d. Nonsense; papillomavirus

Question 71

The ______ method delivers nucleic acid into the cell using high speed metal particles, for example ______.

Choose one answer.

	a. Gene gun, gold
	b. Gene gun, iron
	c. Particle gun, gold
	d. Particle gun, iron

Question 72

The most common polyploidy is trisomy 21, which is _______ syndrome.

Choose one answer.

	a. Turner
	b. Klinefelter
	c. Down
	d. Edwards

Question 73

Iris recognition and friction ridge pattern analysis are both broadly used biometrics techniques. An advantage of the iris method is that it does ______, and the analysis is fully automated. The friction ridges wear off on your fingers as we age, but fingerprints _____ link suspects to the crime scene.

Choose one answer.

	a. Not wear off as we age; can
	b. Wear off as we age; can
	c. Not wear off as we age; cannot
	d. Wear off as we age; cannot

Question 74

STR alleles used in forensics are selected from ______.

Choose one answer.

	a. Noncoding chromosomal regions
	b. Coding chromosomal regions
	c. One chromosome
	d. Sex chromosomes

Question 75

The 13 STR alleles method used by forensics is the most highly regarded method in the crime lab due to the ______ the analysis.

Choose one answer.

	a. Simplicity of
	b. Instantaneous result of
	c. Statistical strength linked to
	d. Variety of available protocols for

Question 76

Blood testing has shown that Mr. X could have fathered Ms. Y's son, since Mr. X's blood type is O, Ms. Y's blood type is AB, and Ms. Y's son's blood type is B. Mr. X claims that he cannot be the father, and a DNA test is ordered. Select the best of the following options.

Choose one answer.

	a. If a Y-typing is performed and shows that Mr. X's Y chromosome is identical to the Y chromosome of Ms. Y's son, then Mr. X must be the father.
	b. If a Y-typing is performed and shows that Mr. X's Y chromosome is identical to the Y chromosome of Ms. Y's son, then Mr. X or another man of his paternal line must be the father.
	c. If forensic DNA-typing is performed utilizing the standard 13 STR regions and shows that Mr. Y's son has one-one allele of Mr. X's each analyzed STR allele pair, then Mr. X must be the father.
	d. DNA fingerprinting cannot prove that Mr. X is the father of Ms. Y's son. But if they are father and son, their friction ridge patterns will be identical on all of their fingers.

Question 77

A variety of alcohol fuels can be generated by microbial _______.

Choose one answer.

	a. Fermentation
	b. Extraction
	c. Bioaccumulation
	d. Bioamplification

Question 78

Biofilm reactors employ microbes that do well in biofilms. ______ biofilm reactors are used to produce chemicals; ______ biofilm reactors are used in waste water management.

Choose one answer.

	a. Single-species; multi-species
	b. Multi-species; single-species
	c. Single-layer; multi-layer
	d. Multi-layer; single-layer

Question 79

Biohydrogen is produced by ______, and it is a potential biofuel.

Choose one answer.

	a. Biochemical reactions
	b. Microbes
	c. Plants
	d. Animals

Question 80

Brent Constanz at Stanford suggests that if we are to decrease carbon dioxide levels in the air, we should trap carbon dioxide _____, just like the Egyptian and Mayan pyramid builders did.

Choose one answer.

	a. As carbonate-based concrete
	b. As Roman-style
	c. As concrete
	d. Underground

Question 81

Controlled ______ utilizing bioconstructs are producing biogas from liquid silage.

Choose one answer.

	a. Fermentation
	b. Extraction
	c. Bioaccumulation
	d. Bioamplification

Question 82

Ex situ bioremediation is ______ and usually takes ______ time.

Choose one answer.

	a. Simple; longer
	b. Technologically challenging; shorter
	c. Simple; shorter
	d. Technologically challenging; longer

Question 83

Hydrocarbons can be degraded by _____.

Choose one answer.

	a. Bacteria
	b. Plants
	c. Birds
	d. Fishes

Question 84

In situ bioremediation is ______ and usually takes _______ time.

Choose one answer.

	a. Simple; longer
	b. Technologically challenging; shorter
	c. Simple; shorter
	d. Technologically challenging; longer

Question 85

Pollutants that cause biomagnification problems are not

Choose one answer.

	a. Soluble in fat.
	b. Hydrophilic.
	c. Stable.
	d. Biologically active.

Question 86

Some ______ species are hyperaccumulators of heavy metal elements and can be used to concentrate heavy metal contaminations in their tissues including, zinc, aluminum, cadmium, and radioactive uranium.

Choose one answer.

	a. Bacteria
	b. Plant
	c. Bird
	d. Fish

Question 87

The Clean Air Act sets National Ambient Air Quality Standards for ______ common air pollutants.

Choose one answer.

	a. Four
	b. Five
	c. Six
	d. Seven

Question 88

The _____ is a continuous bioreactor in which microbial cultures are in steady-state conditions.

Choose one answer.

	a. Chemostat
	b. Traditional liquid culture
	c. Semisolid culture
	d. Subculture

Question 89

______ mining technologies are utilizing bacteria, sometimes extremophiles, and fungi to extract metals.

Choose one answer.

	a. Bioleaching
	b. Bioremediation
	c. In situ
	d. Biofilm

Question 90

_____ of microbes can be harnessed for hydrogen gas production.

Choose one answer.

	a. Hydrogenases
	b. Hydrogen ion pumps
	c. Electron transport chain
	d. ATP

Question 91

Clostridium cellulolyticum is a cellulose degrading bacterium, which has been engineered to produce ______ from cellulose.

Choose one answer.

	a. isobutanol
	b. glucose
	c. penicillin
	d. hydrogen

Question 92

Edible vaccine is ______.

Choose one answer.

	a. Just a fancy name for a multivitamin complex
	b. An antigen engineered into a plant we eat
	c. An attenuated oral vaccine, like the Sabin drops
	d. An antibody engineered into the plant we eat

Question 93

Escherichia coli is a fast growing bacterium, which has been engineered to produce the antibiotic erythromycin, which is native to ________.

Choose one answer.

	a. Saccharopolyspora erythraea
	b. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
	c. Streptomyces parvullus
	d. Clostridium cellulolyticum

Question 94

IGF-1 gene therapy and EPO gene therapy could help people with dystrophin deficiency and kidney failure caused by anemia. These gene therapies may also attract athletes and ______.

Choose one answer.

	a. Lead to gene doping
	b. Initiate intensive wellness activities
	c. Can be easily accepted in sports
	d. Might to be legalized soon

Question 95

Our genetic makeup is different as well as our response to a variety of drugs. ______ aims to predict a person's response to drug therapy.

Choose one answer.

	a. Genetic counseling
	b. Pharmacogenomics
	c. Pharmacokinetics
	d. Pharmacology

Question 96

The aim of using nanoparticles for drug delivery is to ______.

Choose one answer.

	a. Protect against the body's immune response
	b. Bring another alternative to the market
	c. Follow these particles with body scanning
	d. Determine how fat particles leaves the body

Question 97

Therapeutic cloning is progressing toward producing differentiated cells originated from patients. The primary aim is to use these "self" cells _______.

Choose one answer.

	a. to build organs that are not rejected
	b. for future applications
	c. for donation
	d. in cloning

Question 98

_____ have the potential to develop into any kind of cell, thus it has unlimited capacity to heal tissue damage.

Choose one answer.

	a. Embryonic stem cells
	b. Somatic stem cells
	c. Adult stem cells
	d. Multipotent stem cells

Question 99

_____ is the first organism with an entirely synthetic genome. Its cytoplasm is not synthetic.

Choose one answer.

	a. Mycoplasma Laboratorium
	b. Agrobacterium tumefaciens
	c. Escherichia coli
	d. Saccharomyces cerevisiae

Question 100

_____ conjugates cancer-specific monoclonal antibodies and radioactive isotopes to target tumors and limits the destruction of healthy cells.

Choose one answer.

	a. Radioimmunotherapy
	b. Radiotoxins
	c. Radiation therapy
	d. Chemotherapy