BIO404-FinalExam-Answers

Fill in the blank. A growing mass of dividing cells is known as a tumor or ________________.

Choose one answer.

	a. Cytoplasm
	b. Tissue
	c. Neoplasm
	d. Oncogene

Question 2

Fill in the blank. Cancers are named for their _________________.

Choose one answer.

	a. Size
	b. Growth pattern
	c. Location of origin
	d. Appearance

Question 3

Fill in the blank. Tumors that only grow locally and do not spread are known as _______________.

Choose one answer.

	a. Invasive
	b. Benign
	c. Metastatic
	d. Apoptotic

Question 4

In what ways do scientists in the lab study cancer?

Choose one answer.

	a. Studying yeast cell cultures
	b. Conducting experiments using mice
	c. Researching basic cell biology
	d. All of the above

Question 5

James Watson and Francis Crick won a Nobel Prize for which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. Describing the chemical structure of DNA
	b. Outlining how cancer spreads
	c. Identifying mutations that cause cancer
	d. Establishing guidelines for cancer therapy

Question 6

What is the most common type of cancer?

Choose one answer.

	a. Carcinoma
	b. Sarcoma
	c. Lymphoma
	d. Leukemia

Question 7

What is the one characteristic that all cancers have?

Choose one answer.

	a. Incurability
	b. Loss of growth control
	c. Origination in lymph
	d. Contagiousness

Question 8

What was the major contribution of Rudolf Virchow to cancer biology?

Choose one answer.

	a. He explained cancer development with autopsy findings.
	b. He correlated cancer progression to microscopy findings.
	c. He described the humoral theory.
	d. He thought that cancer cells came from lymph.

Question 9

When does cancer growth begin?

Choose one answer.

	a. When new cells are being formed faster than needed
	b. When cell death surpasses cell division (growth)
	c. When cell division equals cell death
	d. When cells no longer divide

Question 10

Which is true of the cancer described by Nobel Prize winner Peyton Rous?

Choose one answer.

	a. It was the first induced in lab animals.
	b. It was the first known to be caused by a virus.
	c. It developed because of the carcinogen tobacco.
	d. It was caused by coal tar.

Question 11

Which of the following is true of the theory that cancer is infectious?

Choose one answer.

	a. The theory that cancer is infectious is well established and proven true.
	b. The theory that cancer is infectious led cancer patients years ago to be housed in the city near other people including doctors.
	c. The theory that cancer is infectious was based on several members of the same household contracting breast cancer.
	d. The theory that cancer is infectious explains how cancer cells spread within a person.

Question 12

Which of the following statements about the ancient Roman doctor Galen is accurate?

Choose one answer.

	a. He described cancer as curable.
	b. He did not believe in cancer.
	c. He thought that cancer was incurable.
	d. He outlined cancer treatments.

Question 13

Which of the following statements about the Scottish surgeon John Hunter is true?

Choose one answer.

	a. He developed anesthesia.
	b. He performed autopsies.
	c. He did radical mastectomies.
	d. He explained that some tumors can be removed.

Question 14

What Greek physician coined the term cancer, after it reminded him of a crab?

Choose one answer.

	a. Celsus
	b. Hunter
	c. Hippocrates
	d. House

Question 15

Adenine in DNA will only bind to which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. Adenine
	b. Guanine
	c. Cytosine
	d. Thymine

Question 16

DNA exposure to UV radiation can cause which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. Thymine dimers
	b. Frameshift mutations
	c. Insertions
	d. Chromosome breaks

Question 17

During DNA replication (copying), what mechanism is used to repair errors?

Choose one answer.

	a. Mismatch repair
	b. Proofreading
	c. Recombination
	d. Apoptosis

Question 18

Fill in the blank. Each DNA sequence (gene) is a “recipe” for a particular __________________.

Choose one answer.

	a. Protein
	b. Nucleic acid
	c. Carbohydrate
	d. Lipid

Question 19

Fill in the blank. The process of translation leads to a string of _________________ that will form the protein.

Choose one answer.

	a. Nucleic acids
	b. Amino acids
	c. Monosaccharides
	d. Lipids

Question 20

How many different kinds of nitrogenous bases are found in DNA?

Choose one answer.

	a. Five
	b. Three
	c. Four
	d. Two

Question 21

How many nucleotide bases code for one amino acid?

Choose one answer.

	a. One
	b. Two
	c. Three
	d. Four

Question 22

Intercalating agents can cause DNA to do which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. Create thymine dimers
	b. Develop base substitutions
	c. Have a frameshift mutation
	d. Exchange adenine for guanine

Question 23

RNA is made up of nitrogenous bases, phosphate, and which sugar?

Choose one answer.

	a. Sucrose
	b. Deoxyribose
	c. Ribose
	d. Fructose

Question 24

What is the function of kinases?

Choose one answer.

	a. To transfer phosphates
	b. To remove phosphates
	c. To bind to ligands
	d. To block receptor binding

Question 25

What type of RNA is made from DNA transcription and splicing?

Choose one answer.

	a. mRNA
	b. tRNA
	c. rRNA
	d. sRNA

Question 26

When genes that encode for DNA repairproteins (enzymes) are mutated, which of the following occurs?

Choose one answer.

	a. No further mutations occur.
	b. There will be no impact on DNA.
	c. DNA mutations will accumulate.
	d. Only repair proteins will be impacted.

Question 27

Where in the cell does the process of transcription, converting DNA into RNA, occur?

Choose one answer.

	a. Cytoplasm
	b. Mitochondria
	c. Nucleus
	d. Cell membrane

Question 28

Which mutated genes can lead to uncontrolled cell growth and cancer?

Choose one answer.

	a. Tumor suppressors
	b. Oncogenes
	c. Proto-oncogenes
	d. DNA repair genes

Question 29

Which of the following is a second messenger?

Choose one answer.

	a. Ligand
	b. GTP
	c. Adenylyl cyclase
	d. cAMP

Question 30

Which of the following is an effect of growth factors?

Choose one answer.

	a. Differentiation
	b. The production of hormones
	c. Proliferation of cells
	d. Both A and C

Question 31

Which of the following is an oncogene?

Choose one answer.

	a. Src
	b. p53
	c. BRCA-1
	d. Rb

Question 32

Which of the following statements about signal transduction is true?

Choose one answer.

	a. Ligands enter the cell and elicit their effect.
	b. The receptor changes conformation and directly causes DNA transcription.
	c. The signaling event is amplified inside the cell.
	d. Signal transduction cascades run indefinitely.

Question 33

What is the structure of DNA?

Choose one answer.

	a. Beta pleated sheet
	b. Double helix
	c. Single spiral
	d. Hexagonal plane

Question 34

How do cyclin dependent kinases signal?

Choose one answer.

	a. By transferring a phosphate
	b. By removing a methyl group
	c. By binding to receptor on cell surface
	d. By targeting DNA for transcription

Question 35

In which phase of the cell cycle does nuclear division occur?

Choose one answer.

	a. G1
	b. S
	c. G2
	d. M

Question 36

What happens in metaphase that must be correct before cell division can occur?

Choose one answer.

	a. Chromosomes line up in the center of the cell.
	b. DNA is replicated.
	c. The nuclear membrane disappears.
	d. Proteins pull apart the chromosomes.

Question 37

Which of the following accurately describes Retinoblastoma (Rb)?

Choose one answer.

	a. It is a type of eye cancer.
	b. It is a transcription factor.
	c. It is a tumor suppressor.
	d. All of the above

Question 38

Which of the following acts like a brake in the cell cycle?

Choose one answer.

	a. Oncogenes
	b. Tumor suppressors
	c. DNA repair genes
	d. Accessory proteins

Question 39

Which of the following detects damaged DNA and prevents further progression of the cell cycle?

Choose one answer.

	a. Myc
	b. p53
	c. Src
	d. Rb

Question 40

Which of the following is bound to E2F in the cell cycle, and mutations in it will lead to unchecked cell growth?

Choose one answer.

	a. Myc
	b. p53
	c. Src
	d. Rb

Question 41

Which of the following is NOT a cell cycle control?

Choose one answer.

	a. G1/S
	b. S/G2
	c. G2/M
	d. Metaphase/anaphase transition

Question 42

Which of the following is NOT important for regulating cell cycle checkpoints?

Choose one answer.

	a. Cyclins
	b. Cyclin dependent kinases
	c. Tumor suppressors
	d. Oncogenes

Question 43

Which of the following may lead to the development of cancer?

Choose one answer.

	a. Inactivation of tumor suppressors
	b. Mutations of DNA repair genes
	c. Conversion of proto-oncogenes to oncogenes
	d. All of the above

Question 44

Which of the following statements about BRCA1 or BRCA2 testing is true?

Choose one answer.

	a. BRCA1 or BRCA2 testing is used to diagnose breast cancer.
	b. BRCA1 or BRCA2 testing screens for an increased risk of developing breast cancer.
	c. BRCA1 or BRCA2 testing is easily interpreted.
	d. BRCA1 or BRCA2 testing is useful for patients that have breast cancer.

Question 45

Which tumor suppressor has important checkpoints in the cell cycle?

Choose one answer.

	a. Myc
	b. Src
	c. p53
	d. Bcl-2

Question 46

In which stage of the cell cycle is DNA replicated?

Choose one answer.

	a. G1
	b. S
	c. G2
	d. M

Question 47

Dedifferentiation is also known as which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. Hyperplasia
	b. Dysplasia
	c. Anaplasia
	d. Carcinoma in situ

Question 48

Fill in the blank. HeLa cells were taken from the _______________ of Henrietta Lacks.

Choose one answer.

	a. Breast
	b. Cervix
	c. Liver
	d. Lung

Question 49

Fill in the blank. The overproduction of normal-looking cells is known as __________________.

Choose one answer.

	a. Dysplasia
	b. Carcinoma in situ
	c. Hyperplasia
	d. Anaplasia

Question 50

How have HeLa cells been used?

Choose one answer.

	a. To develop a polio vaccine
	b. To study genetics
	c. To conduct numerous scientific studies
	d. All of the above

Question 51

What is ceramide activation thought to do following the binding of ligand to death receptor?

Choose one answer.

	a. Stimulate death receptor clustering
	b. Directly target caspase
	c. Block lipid raft fusion
	d. Turn off the process of apoptosis

Question 52

What is the average life of a skin cell?

Choose one answer.

	a. 4 months
	b. 3 days
	c. 2 weeks
	d. 1 hour

Question 53

When telomeres reach threshold, what normally happens to cell division?

Choose one answer.

	a. It progresses.
	b. It is arrested.
	c. It takes twice as long.
	d. It requires p53.

Question 54

Which of the following can stimulate programmed cell death?

Choose one answer.

	a. Ionizing radiation
	b. Depletion of growth factors and nutrients needed to survive
	c. Infection of the cell by a virus
	d. All of the above

Question 55

Which of the following does NOT initiate apoptosis?

Choose one answer.

	a. Binding of B lymphocytes to death receptors
	b. Signals from the mitochondria
	c. Granzyme
	d. Caspase

Question 56

Which of the following is a powerful inducer of apoptosis in most cells?

Choose one answer.

	a. p53
	b. Myc
	c. IGF
	d. Bcl-2

Question 57

Which of the following is required for cell immortality?

Choose one answer.

	a. Caspase
	b. p53
	c. Telomerase
	d. Ras

Question 58

Which of the following is true of tumor promotion?

Choose one answer.

	a. It comes before initiation.
	b. It does not require initiation.
	c. More promoters will lead to a more pronounced risk.
	d. Low levels of promoters will not likely cause tumor promotion.

Question 59

Which of the following types of neoplasms is derived from epithelial cells?

Choose one answer.

	a. Sarcomas
	b. Carcinomas
	c. Blastomas
	d. All of the above

Question 60

With each cell division, what happens to telomeres?

Choose one answer.

	a. Telomeres are replaced.
	b. Telomeres are removed.
	c. Telomeres lengthen.
	d. Telomeres shorten.

Question 61

Fill in the blank. Cancer cells no longer have programmed cell death, known as _______________.

Choose one answer.

	a. Necrosis
	b. Apoptosis
	c. Replication
	d. Mutation

Question 62

Complete the following statement. Proteases can do all of the following to promote cancer development and metastasis EXCEPT:

Choose one answer.

	a. Stimulate growth factors.
	b. Induce angiogenesis.
	c. Build the basement membrane.
	d. Destroy extracellular matrix (ECM).

Question 63

Fill in the blank. The formation of blood vessels surrounding a tumor is known as ________________.

Choose one answer.

	a. Oncogenesis
	b. Metastasis
	c. Angiogenesis
	d. Anaplasia

Question 64

If cancer originates in one lobe of the lungs and then metastasizes to the adrenal glands and then the liver, what kind of cancer is it?

Choose one answer.

	a. Adrenal
	b. Lung
	c. Liver
	d. Renal

Question 65

What is the main site of metastasis for breast cancer?

Choose one answer.

	a. Heart
	b. Lungs
	c. Liver
	d. Cervix

Question 66

Which of the following allows tumor cells to select certain tissues over others during metastasis?

Choose one answer.

	a. Adhesion molecules
	b. The absence of growth factors
	c. The blood vessel size supplying that tissue
	d. Platelets

Question 67

Which of the following cancers is least likely to metastasize?

Choose one answer.

	a. Breast
	b. Lung
	c. Blood
	d. Colon

Question 68

Which of the following inhibits angiogenesis?

Choose one answer.

	a. VEGF
	b. bFGF
	c. Endostatin
	d. p53

Question 69

Which of the following is NOT a typical way that cancer metastasizes?

Choose one answer.

	a. In the blood
	b. In the lymphatic system
	c. Through body walls
	d. Via the gastrointestinal tract

Question 70

Which of the following stimulates angiogenesis?

Choose one answer.

	a. VEGF
	b. p53
	c. Ras
	d. BRCA1

Question 71

Why is the prediction of cancer metastasis so hard to determine in the lymphatic system?

Choose one answer.

	a. Everyone has slightly different lymphatic networks.
	b. More cells are found in lymph than in blood, making it hard to spot cancer cells.
	c. Tumor cells do not interact with the lymphatic vessels.
	d. Lymph nodes hide cancer cells, making it difficult to detect them there.

Question 72

Fill in the blank. When cancer cells move into the bloodstream or lymphatic system and invade a new, healthy tissue, this is known as _________________.

Choose one answer.

	a. Angiogenesis
	b. Oncoprogression
	c. Hitching
	d. Metastasis

Question 73

An incomplete carcinogen needs which of the following to develop into a cancer causing agent?

Choose one answer.

	a. An initiator
	b. An inducer
	c. A promoter
	d. Both A and C

Question 74

Fill in the blank. Conversion of a potential carcinogen into its carcinogenic form is known as _______________.

Choose one answer.

	a. Proliferation
	b. Biotransformation
	c. Promotion
	d. Induction

Question 75

Fill in the blank. High throughput chemical testing allows potential carcinogens to be tested ________________.

Choose one answer.

	a. In an animal model
	b. In a single concentration
	c. In isolation
	d. At high rates of speed

Question 76

Fill in the blank. Hormone replacement therapy has been link to increased _________________ cancer.

Choose one answer.

	a. Cervical
	b. Endometrial
	c. Breast
	d. Bladder

Question 77

Sixty-seven percent of cancers are caused by which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. Genetics
	b. Environmental factors
	c. Nutritional status
	d. Older age

Question 78

Which IRAC carcinogen classification group is most significant to cancer in humans?

Choose one answer.

	a. 1
	b. 2A
	c. 2B
	d. 3

Question 79

Which of the following determines level of cancer risk from an environmental exposure?

Choose one answer.

	a. Time of exposure
	b. Potency
	c. Dose-response
	d. All of the above

Question 80

Which of the following is NOT a factor in cancer disparities?

Choose one answer.

	a. Literacy
	b. Race
	c. Gender
	d. Income

Question 81

Which of the following is NOT an external cause of mutations?

Choose one answer.

	a. UV radiation
	b. Oxygen free radicals
	c. Genetics
	d. Viruses

Question 82

Which of the following is NOT linked to lung cancer?

Choose one answer.

	a. Smoking
	b. Asbestos
	c. Radon
	d. Arsenic

Question 83

Which of the following significantly causes liver cancer throughout the world?

Choose one answer.

	a. Aflatoxins
	b. Benzene
	c. Hepatitis B and C viruses
	d. Alcohol

Question 84

Which of the following types of cancer has the highest death rate for both males and females of all educational levels?

Choose one answer.

	a. Breast
	b. Lung
	c. Colorectal
	d. Prostate

Question 85

Human papilloma virus has been linked to which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. Breast cancer
	b. Colon cancer
	c. Cervical cancer
	d. Lung cancer

Question 86

At what age should a male begin having prostate screenings done if they are at normal risk?

Choose one answer.

	a. 35
	b. 45
	c. 40
	d. 50

Question 87

At what age should females begin screening for cervical cancer?

Choose one answer.

	a. No later than 21
	b. 30
	c. Before 21 if sexually active
	d. Both A and C

Question 88

Fill in the blank. Removal of potentially cancerous tissue for microscopic examination is known as a _________________.

Choose one answer.

	a. Microarray
	b. Mammogram
	c. Biopsy
	d. Oncogram

Question 89

Fill in the blank. The lower a cancer’s stage, then _________________ is greater.

Choose one answer.

	a. Metastasis
	b. Loss of cell growth
	c. Patient’s chance of survival
	d. Risk for secondary infection

Question 90

What is the biggest causative agent for death caused by cancer?

Choose one answer.

	a. UV radiation
	b. Tobacco smoking
	c. Radioisotopes
	d. Genetics

Question 91

What is the most dangerous form of skin cancer?

Choose one answer.

	a. Sarcoma
	b. Blastoma
	c. Carcinoma
	d. Melanoma

Question 92

What is the prominent cancer in the United States?

Choose one answer.

	a. Breast cancer
	b. Cervical cancer
	c. Prostate cancer
	d. Colon cancer

Question 93

What is the single best way to prevent cancer?

Choose one answer.

	a. Eat a high fiber diet
	b. Exercise daily
	c. Avoid tobacco
	d. Have an annual check-up

Question 94

Which of the following cancer risks does BRCA analysis evaluate?

Choose one answer.

	a. Environmental exposure
	b. Genetic predisposition
	c. Dietary intake
	d. Medical status

Question 95

Which of the following greatly increases your risk for esophagus cancer?

Choose one answer.

	a. Tobacco
	b. Poor diet
	c. Alcohol
	d. Both A and C

Question 96

Which of the following is a screening test for cervical cancer?

Choose one answer.

	a. Pap
	b. Mammogram
	c. PSA
	d. Fecal occult blood

Question 97

Which of the following is a screening test for colon cancer?

Choose one answer.

	a. Pap
	b. Mammogram
	c. PSA
	d. Fecal occult blood

Question 98

Which of the following statements about screening methods is true?

Choose one answer.

	a. Screening methods provide a definitive diagnosis.
	b. Screening methods are used to detect cancer in patients without symptoms.
	c. Screening methods should only be used if a patient has cancer symptoms.
	d. Screening methods have not made a significant impact on cancer prognosis.

Question 99

How are antibodies used to treat cancer?

Choose one answer.

	a. They mark cancer cells to be killed.
	b. They block important receptors on cancer cells.
	c. They carry toxic substances to the cancer cells.
	d. Both A and C

Question 100

Surgery is often used with which of the following to treat cancer?

Choose one answer.

	a. Radiation
	b. Immunotherapy
	c. Chemotherapy
	d. Both A and C

Question 101

What drug first treated metastatic cancer in 1956?

Choose one answer.

	a. Methotrexate
	b. Doxil
	c. Mustard gas
	d. Avastin

Question 102

What type of cancer is Gleevec used to treat?

Choose one answer.

	a. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
	b. Lymphoma
	c. Kaposi’s Sarcoma
	d. Acute colon cancer

Question 103

Which of the following cells will be least impacted by chemotherapy?

Choose one answer.

	a. Cells lining the gastrointestinal track
	b. Cancer cells
	c. Bone marrow cells
	d. Skeletal muscle cells

Question 104

Which of the following is NOT a process that PKD (protein kinase D) regulates?

Choose one answer.

	a. Inducing apoptosis
	b. Cell division
	c. Cancer cell proliferation
	d. Signaling

Question 105

Which of the following is NOT an example of a chemotherapy drug?

Choose one answer.

	a. Spindle promoter
	b. Antimetabolite
	c. Genotoxic agent
	d. Purine and pyrimidine antagonists

Question 106

Which of the following is NOT an example of targeted therapy?

Choose one answer.

	a. Kinase inhibitor
	b. Angiogenesis inhibitor
	c. Antimetabolites
	d. Antisense oligonucleotides

Question 107

Which of the following is the downside to a siRNA cancer treatment?

Choose one answer.

	a. It is toxic to normal cells.
	b. The same siRNA cannot be used a second time if cancer returns.
	c. It is impossible to get siRNA into cells.
	d. siRNA stimulates an immune response.

Question 108

Which of the following is the most common approach for delivering DNA in gene therapy?

Choose one answer.

	a. Lentivirus
	b. Adenovirus
	c. Herpes simplex virus
	d. Epstein Barr Virus

Question 109

Which of the following is the role of embryonic stem cells?

Choose one answer.

	a. To repair damaged tissues
	b. For long term maintenance
	c. To divide into tissue that will form organs
	d. To complete body tissues

Question 110

Which one of the following types of cancer might be treated with hormone therapy?

Choose one answer.

	a. Esophagus
	b. Lung
	c. Prostate
	d. Colon