How many orbitals would you expect for a system with the following set of quantum numbers?

Choose one answer.

	a. 1
	b. 3
	c. 5
	d. 7

Question 2

What is the designation for the subshell with the following set of quantum numbers?

Choose one answer.

	a. 5d
	b. 6f
	c. 6p
	d. The subshell does not exist.

Question 3

The following set of quantum numbers

Choose one answer.

	a. is representative of a transition metal.
	b. is not allowed.
	c. is representative of a p-block element.
	d. is representative of an element with two valence electrons.

Question 4

One of the p-orbitals of an unknown element is half filled. Assuming that Hund's rule is upheld, which of the following elements could not be the unknown element?

Choose one answer.

	a. xenon
	b. silicon
	c. gallium
	d. iodine

Question 5

Which of these compounds has a nonzero dipole moment?

Choose one answer.

	a. boron trifluoride
	b. water
	c. carbon dioxide
	d. methane

Question 6

The configuration for cadmium has 48 electrons. How many electrons occupy the 3d orbital?

Choose one answer.

	a. 2
	b. 6
	c. 10
	d. 14

Question 7

How many electrons are in the outermost energy shell for promethium (element 61)?

Choose one answer.

	a. 2
	b. 4
	c. 8
	d. 12

Question 8

The element represented by this orbital diagram is

Choose one answer.

	a. lithium.
	b. carbon.
	c. silicon.
	d. nitrogen.

Question 9

The element represented by this orbital diagram is

Choose one answer.

	a. chlorine.
	b. argon.
	c. neon.
	d. boron.

Question 10

In the experimentally observed Z_eff values for the 2p elements, we find that the increase in the Z_eff for a 2p electron is slightly smaller between N and O (ΔZ_eff ≈ 0.62) than between C and N (ΔZ_eff ≈ 0.69). Which of the following is not a reason for the differences in the ΔZ_eff values?

Choose one answer.

	a. Moving from C to N adds an electron to an occupied orbital.
	b. The Z_eff value for oxygen is raised due to additional shielding from fluorine.
	c. Moving from N to O pairs two electrons in a single orbital.
	d. The Z_eff value decreases with an increase in electron repulsion.

Question 11

Which element has the largest ionization energy?

Choose one answer.

	a. fluorine
	b. chlorine
	c. bromine
	d. iodine

Question 12

Which element has the smallest atomic radius?

Choose one answer.

	a. indium
	b. gallium
	c. boron
	d. aluminum

Question 13

For which of these systems does the metal have a d⁰ electron configuration?

Choose one answer.

	a. RuNH₃³⁺
	b. MnO₄^-
	c. CuNO₃
	d. Zn(ClO₄)₂

Question 14

Which element has the lowest electron affinity?

Choose one answer.

	a. argon
	b. chlorine
	c. xenon
	d. bromine

Question 15

The 4th ionization energy of aluminum is approximately 154 eV. From which orbital is the electron being removed?

Choose one answer.

	a. 2p
	b. 2s
	c. 3p
	d. 3s

Question 16

For the nitrite ion structure below, what is the formal charge on the nitrogen atom?

Choose one answer.

	a. 1+
	b. 1-
	c. 2+
	d. There is no charge on the nitrogen.

Question 17

The Lewis dot structure for a sulfate ion gives sulfur a formal charge of zero with six bonds. Based on the structure and the Lewis dot theory, which of the following statements about the sulfur atom is false?

Choose one answer.

	a. The sulfur disobeys the octet rule.
	b. Sulfur has more valence electrons than oxygen.
	c. Sulfur has a greater number of electron shells than oxygen.
	d. Sulfur is less electronegative than oxygen.

Question 18

The AX₃E structure notation best describes which molecule?

Choose one answer.

	a. H₂O
	b. SF₄
	c. NH₃
	d. XeF₄

Question 19

What is the molecular geometry of BCl₃?

Choose one answer.

	a. square planar
	b. octahedral
	c. tetrahedral
	d. trigonal planar

Question 20

What is the bond order for the Be₂ molecule?

Choose one answer.

	a. 0
	b. 1
	c. 2
	d. 3

Question 21

According to molecular orbital theory, which molecule is the most stable?

Choose one answer.

	a. N₂
	b. C₂
	c. B₂
	d. Be₂

Question 22

The crystal field splitting diagram shown here represents a _________ complex.

Choose one answer.

	a. high-spin iron(II)
	b. low-spin iron(II)
	c. high-spin iron(III)
	d. low-spin iron(III)

Question 23

The reaction between hexaamminechromium(III) perchlorate and an excess amount of _________ would definitely lead to the following crystal field splitting diagram.

Choose one answer.

	a. water
	b. oxalic acid
	c. ammonia
	d. hydrobromic acid

Question 24

Which orbital would you expect to be the LUMO for a O₂^2- peroxide ion?

Choose one answer.

	a. 2pσ
	b. 2pπ
	c. 2pσ^*
	d. 2pπ^*

Question 25

The crystal field splitting diagram shown here represents

Choose one answer.

	a. [Co(NH₃)₆]^3-.
	b. [NiCl₆]^4-.
	c. [Ni(NH₃)₆]²⁺.
	d. [CoF₆]^3-.

Question 26

The crystal field splitting diagram shown here represents

Choose one answer.

	a. paramagnetic [FeCl₆]³⁺.
	b. paramagnetic [Fe(CN)₆]³⁺.
	c. diamagnetic [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺.
	d. diamagnetic [CoF₆]²⁺.

Question 27

The chemical formula for potassium hexacyanorhodium(III) is

Choose one answer.

	a. K₃[Rh(CN)₆].
	b. Na₂[Rh(CN)₆].
	c. Na₂[Rh(NH₃)₆].
	d. K[Rh(CN)₆].

Question 28

The proper name for the Na[PtCl₃(NH₃)] complex is

Choose one answer.

	a. amminetrichloroplatinate(II) ion.
	b. sodium amminetrichloroplatinate(II).
	c. sodium amminetrichloroplatinate(IV).
	d. potassium amminetrichloroplatinate(II).

Question 29

Which complex would you expect to be blue in an aqueous solution?

Choose one answer.

	a. [Ni(CO)₆]³⁺
	b. [Ru(bipy)₃]²⁺
	c. [FeCl₆]³⁺
	d. [Co(CN)₆]^3-

Question 30

What geometry would you expect [Pt(CN)₄]^2- complex to have?

Choose one answer.

	a. trigonal bipyrimidal
	b. tetragonal
	c. tetrahedral
	d. square planar

Question 31

A rhombohedral crystal system has which characteristics?

Choose one answer.

	a. a ≠ b ≠ c, α = β = γ = 90°
	b. a = b = c, α = β = γ ≠ 90°
	c. a = b = c, α = β = γ = 90°
	d. a ≠ b ≠ c, α = β = γ ≠ 90°

Question 32

The complex M_XL_Y has the crystal coordinate system seen below. Of the 14 Bravais lattices, to which could M_XL_Y belong?

Choose one answer.

	a. base-centered orthorhombic
	b. face-centered cubic
	c. body-centered orthorhombic
	d. base-centered monoclinic

Question 33

How many spheres/atoms are contained in a face-centered cubic unit cell?

Choose one answer.

	a. 2
	b. 4
	c. 6
	d. 8

Question 34

Which of the following statements concerning amorphous solids is false?

Choose one answer.

	a. Unlike crystalline solids, amorphous solids lack a repeating unit cell, leading to a random organization of atoms.
	b. Unlike crystalline solids, amorphous solids tend to lose structural organization as their lattices extend.
	c. Amorphous solids are said to behave as supercooled liquids, leading to an ease in transitioning between physical states.
	d. The formation of amorphous solids is aided by the rapid cooling of a molten compound.

Question 35

Which of the following is not a characteristic of covalent solids?

Choose one answer.

	a. high melting point
	b. low electrical conductivity
	c. high level of hardness
	d. high water solubility

Question 36

How many complete flourine atoms are present in a single unit cell of flourite (CaF₂)?

Choose one answer.

	a. 4
	b. 6
	c. 8
	d. 14

Question 37

How many spheres/atoms are contained in a simple cubic unit cell?

Choose one answer.

	a. 0
	b. 1
	c. 2
	d. 4

Question 38

Which halogen would form a binary rubidium compound (RbX) with the longest bond length?

Choose one answer.

	a. fluorine
	b. chlorine
	c. bromine
	d. iodine

Question 39

Which ion has the smallest radius?

Choose one answer.

	a. selenium
	b. tellurium
	c. oxygen
	d. sulfur

Question 40

Which of the following statements about the 14 Bravais unit cells is incorrect?

Choose one answer.

	a. The unit cell is the simplest repeating unit in the crystal lattice.
	b. Opposing faces of a unit cell are parallel.
	c. Each unit cell edge is equivalent in length.
	d. Each unit cell edge connects equivalent points/atoms.

Question 41

Using the table below, determine the crystal lattice energy of KBr.

Choose one answer.

	a. -604 kJ/mol
	b. -660 kJ/mol
	c. -740 kJ/mol
	d. -819 kJ/mol

Question 42

Cesium and sodium are Group 1 metals, but the coordination number of cesium in the CsCl unit cell is 8, whereas the coordination number of sodium in the NaCl unit cell is 6. What allows cesium to have a larger coordination number?

Choose one answer.

	a. Sodium has a larger ionic radius than cesium, allowing for less anion attraction.
	b. Due to its size, cesium makes more contact with adjacent anions than sodium does.
	c. The NaCl radius ratio is greater than that of CsCl, forcing anions farther from the metal cation.
	d. Chlorine is too electronegative to be completely compatible with sodium.

Question 43

How many complete NaCl molecules are found in the rock salt unit cell?

Choose one answer.

	a. 1
	b. 4
	c. 8
	d. 12

Question 44

The coordination numbers of Ca²⁺ and F^- in flourite are _________, respectively.

Choose one answer.

	a. 2 and 4
	b. 4 and 2
	c. 4 and 4
	d. 6 and 4

Question 45

A body-centered cubic crystal system is best represented in the unit cell of which crystalline solid?

Choose one answer.

	a. perovskite
	b. NaCl
	c. rutile
	d. CsCl

Question 46

In a close-packed system, what percentage of the unit cell is occupied by holes?

Choose one answer.

	a. 14
	b. 26
	c. 74
	d. 86

Question 47

In a hexagonal close-packed system, the metal atom caps are arranged in an _________ pattern.

Choose one answer.

	a. ABC
	b. AAA
	c. ABB
	d. ABA

Question 48

For a face-centered cubic crystal system MX, the metal M is located at the coordinates (1/2, 1/2, 1/2). What would you expect the metal's coordination number to be?

Choose one answer.

	a. 4
	b. 6
	c. 8
	d. 12

Question 49

A Madelung constant value near 2.4 would likely represent which compound?

Choose one answer.

	a. barium selenide
	b. beryllium oxide
	c. titanium(II) oxide
	d. strontium chloride

Question 50

Tetrahedral holes have a coordination number of

Choose one answer.

	a. 4.
	b. 6.
	c. 8.
	d. 12.

Question 51

How many octahedral holes would you expect to find in a closed-packed crystal containing 8 atoms?

Choose one answer.

	a. 4
	b. 6
	c. 8
	d. 12

Question 52

How many tetrahedral holes would you expect to find in a close-packed crystal containing 6 atoms?

Choose one answer.

	a. 4
	b. 6
	c. 8
	d. 12

Question 53

What is the size of an octahedral hole in a cubic close-packed system with a radius of 1.5 Ä?

Choose one answer.

	a. 0.310 Ä
	b. 0.414 Ä
	c. 0.621 Ä
	d. 0.932 Ä

Question 54

What is the size of a tetrahedral hole in a cubic close-packed system with a radius of 1.2 Ä?

Choose one answer.

	a. 0.23 Ä
	b. 0.27 Ä
	c. 0.40 Ä
	d. 0.54 Ä

Question 55

The MX compound has a radius ratio of 0.51. The metal ion M has the crystal lattice coordinates shown below. Which of the following statements about the MX compound is false?

Choose one answer.

	a. There are at least three M spheres within the lattice.
	b. The lattice is body centered.
	c. The lattice is close-packed cubic.
	d. The system is hexacoordinate.

Question 56

A body-centered cubic unit cell has a coordination number of

Choose one answer.

	a. 4.
	b. 6.
	c. 8.
	d. 10.

Question 57

Steel-a solid solution consisting of carbon atoms seated in the holes of an iron atom structure-is an example of a(n)

Choose one answer.

	a. pure metal.
	b. alkali metal.
	c. substitutional alloy.
	d. interstitial alloy.

Question 58

Brass-a solid solution consisting of zinc and copper atoms-can be considered a(n) _________ and a(n) _________.

Choose one answer.

	a. substitutional alloy, interstitial alloy
	b. intermetallic alloy, interstitial alloy
	c. substitutional alloy, intermetallic alloy
	d. pure metal, intermetallic alloy

Question 59

Raising the temperature of a metal serves to

Choose one answer.

	a. ease electron flow over band gaps.
	b. slow down the activity of the atom, promoting a gradual increase in conductivity.
	c. impede conductivity due to increased atom vibration.
	d. allow the metal to behave as a superconductor.

Question 60

Which of the following statements about superconductors is true?

Choose one answer.

	a. Superconductors are perfectly paramagnetic.
	b. Most superconductors require low temperatures to be efficient.
	c. Superconductors exhibit high resistance to electron flow.
	d. Superconductors exhibit large energy gaps between the valence and conductor bands.

Question 61

The LUMO of a semiconductor

Choose one answer.

	a. has a limited number of electrons present.
	b. is often separated from the HOMO by an unsurmountable energy gap.
	c. serves as a dopant to the valence band.
	d. serves to provide electrons to the valence band.

Question 62

Glass and quartz are examples of

Choose one answer.

	a. conductors.
	b. semiconductors.
	c. insulators.
	d. superconductors.

Question 63

For n-type semiconductors,

Choose one answer.

	a. conduction band electrons outnumber valence band holes.
	b. electron flow is halted due to dopant impurities.
	c. an equal number of valence band holes and conductor band electrons exist, making dopants unnecessary.
	d. doping is facilitated by halides.

Question 64

The doping of silicon with which element would likely form an p-type semiconductor?

Choose one answer.

	a. phosphorus
	b. boron
	c. antimony
	d. carbon

Question 65

Which of the following statements about semiconductors is true?

Choose one answer.

	a. Intrinsic superconductors require a dopant to conduct electricity.
	b. Semiconductors have no energy gap between the valence and conductor bands.
	c. Semiconductors increase in conductivity with increasing temperatures.
	d. Intrinsic semiconductors are more efficient than extrinsic semiconductors.

Question 66

For potassium metal, the 4p band represents the _________ and the _________.

Choose one answer.

	a. LUMO, antibonding orbital
	b. LUMO, bonding orbital
	c. HOMO, nonbonding orbital
	d. HOMO, antibonding orbital

Question 67

At low temperatures, semiconductors and insulators differ only in

Choose one answer.

	a. valence band composition, with semiconductors and insulators having half- and fully filled HOMOs, respectively.
	b. electron placement, with electrons occupying the conductance bands of semiconductors but not of insulators.
	c. resistivity, with semiconductors being less conductive than insulators with increasing temperatures.
	d. band gap size, with insulator band gaps being greater in energy than those of semiconductors.

Question 68

A material that is able to maintain zero electrical resistance at temperatures near 30K° is considered a(n)

Choose one answer.

	a. intrinsic semiconductor.
	b. high-temperature superconductor.
	c. low-temperature superconductor.
	d. extrinsic semiconductor.

Question 69

Which system below represents an n-type semiconductor?

Choose one answer.

	a. I
	b. II
	c. I and II
	d. none of the above

Question 70

4s-4p band overlap allows calcium to behave as a conductor. How many energy levels are present in the conduction band?

Choose one answer.

	a. 2
	b. 6
	c. 8
	d. 14

Question 71

Which system below represents an intrinsic semiconductor?

Choose one answer.

	a. I
	b. II
	c. I and II
	d. none of the above

Question 72

Nuclear magnetic resonance (NMR) spectroscopy makes use of liquid helium in order to generate large magnetic fields. The metals involved in creating these fields are behaving as

Choose one answer.

	a. intrinsic semiconductors.
	b. high-temperature superconductors.
	c. low-temperature superconductors.
	d. extrinsic semiconductors.

Question 73

For which Lewis base would you expect Cu⁺ to have the greatest affinity?

Choose one answer.

	a. I^-
	b. Br^-
	c. Cl^-
	d. F^-

Question 74

Under acidic aqueous conditions, the permanganate ion dissociates and forms Mn²⁺ and 4 mol of water. How many electrons are transferred in this reaction?

Choose one answer.

	a. 0
	b. 2
	c. 5
	d. 7

Question 75

As the oxidation number of a Lewis acid becomes larger (such as Co²⁺ to Co³⁺), what happens to its hard/soft acid/base character?

Choose one answer.

	a. The Lewis acid becomes softer.
	b. The Lewis acid becomes harder.
	c. No change is observed.
	d. The Lewis acid behaves as a base.

Question 76

The pOH of the conjugate base of an unknown acid is 4.17. What is the [H+] concentration of the unknown acid?

Choose one answer.

	a. 2.27 x 10^-12
	b. 1.48 x 10^-10
	c. 6.76 x 10^-5
	d. 4.66 x 10^-2

Question 77

In a sulfur-based Lewis base, as the oxidation number of sulfur increases (such as SO₃^2- to SO₄^2-), what happens to its Lewis base character?

Choose one answer.

	a. No change is observed.
	b. The Lewis base becomes harder.
	c. The Lewis base becomes softer.
	d. The Lewis base behaves as an acid.

Question 78

At room temperature, which hydrogen halide has the lowest boiling point?

Choose one answer.

	a. HI
	b. HF
	c. HCl
	d. HBr

Question 79

The addition of 4.5x molar excess of aminodimethylsulfoxide (ADMSO) to an ethanolic solution of CuCl₂ leads to the formation of Cu(ADMSO)₄. What is the makeup of the metal-ligand bond?

Choose one answer.

	a. C-O
	b. C-C
	c. C-S
	d. C-N

Question 80

For the reaction of mercury(II) chloride and ammonia, which product is a conjugate Lewis base?

Choose one answer.

	a. NH₃
	b. HgCl₂
	c. Hg(NH₃)₂
	d. Cl^-

Question 81

For the reaction below, the hydrogen phosphate ion behaves as a(n)

Choose one answer.

	a. acid.
	b. base.
	c. chelator
	d. catalyst.

Question 82

For the reaction below, water behaves as a(n)

Choose one answer.

	a. acid.
	b. base.
	c. both A and B
	d. none of the above

Question 83

For the pair of reactions below, which compounds are represented by X, Y, and Z, respectively?

Choose one answer.

	a. FeSO₄₃, 3Ag₂SO₄, 3Pt(SCN)₄
	b. Fe₂(SO₄)₃, 6Ag₂SO₄, 3Pt(SCN)₄
	c. Fe₂(SO₄)₃, 6Ag₂SO₄, 3Pt(SCN)₂
	d. Fe₂(SO₄)₃, 3Ag₂SO₄, 3Pt(SCN)₄

Question 84

For which Lewis acid would you expect CO to have the least affinity?

Choose one answer.

	a. Ag⁺
	b. Ru³⁺
	c. Be²⁺
	d. Zn²⁺

Question 85

For which Lewis acid would you expect H₂O to have the greatest affinity?

Choose one answer.

	a. Pt⁴⁺
	b. Cd²⁺
	c. Ni²⁺
	d. Fe³⁺

Question 86

Which of the following hydrogen halides has the smallest bond enthalpy?

Choose one answer.

	a. HI
	b. HF
	c. HBr
	d. HCl

Question 87

The combustion of methane gas forms _________ and water.

Choose one answer.

	a. oxalic acid
	b. carbon monoxide
	c. carbon suboxide
	d. carbon dioxide

Question 88

The reaction of a Group I metal hydroxide with excess nitric acid leads to a series of solid metal nitrates. Of the following, which would you expect to have the lowest boiling point?

Choose one answer.

	a. RbNO₃
	b. LiNO₃
	c. NaNO₃
	d. KNO₃

Question 89

Which Group 3 element has the highest melting point?

Choose one answer.

	a. aluminum
	b. boron
	c. indium
	d. gallium

Question 90

Which diatomic system has the largest bond enthalpy?

Choose one answer.

	a. PbO
	b. SiO
	c. CO
	d. GeO

Question 91

Nitrogen and phosphorus are Group 5 elements, but nitrogen forms only three bonds, while phosphorus can form up to five. What accounts for the ability of phosphorus to form more bonds?

Choose one answer.

	a. Phosphorus has an additional electron shell.
	b. Phosphorus has two more valence electrons than nitrogen.
	c. Phosphorus is more electronegative than nitrogen.
	d. Nitrogen has three unpaired electrons in its ground state.

Question 92

Which Group 6 element has the largest atomic radius?

Choose one answer.

	a. oxygen
	b. sulfur
	c. selenium
	d. tellurium

Question 93

The molecular formula for chlorous acid is

Choose one answer.

	a. HClO.
	b. HClO₂.
	c. HClO₃.
	d. HClO₄.

Question 94

Which of the following halogens is a solid at room temperature?

Choose one answer.

	a. bromine
	b. chlorine
	c. iodine
	d. fluorine

Question 95

While not to the same extent as Group I metals, Group II metals are quite reactive with water. Each metal has a different level of reactivity with water, but they ultimately follow a well-observed reactivity trend. What is an explanation for the trend observed in water reactivity when moving down from beryllium to barium?

Choose one answer.

	a. The electronegativity increases with additional electron shells.
	b. The electrons of the larger metals are farther from the nucleus and easier to remove.
	c. The smaller metals have a greater attraction to the lone pairs on the H₂O oxygens.
	d. The presence of d-orbital electrons in the larger metals allows for decreased water reactivity.

Question 96

In the product for the reaction below, what is the oxidation state of phosphorus?

Choose one answer.

	a. 2+
	b. 3+
	c. 3-
	d. 5+

Question 97

For the reaction below, X could represent which element?

Choose one answer.

	a. calcium
	b. rubidium
	c. indium
	d. silicon

Question 98

For the reaction below, element X is a _________ element.

Choose one answer.

	a. Group 2
	b. Group 3
	c. Group 4
	d. Group 5

Question 99

For the reaction below, X could represent which element?

Choose one answer.

	a. strontium
	b. potassium
	c. magnesium
	d. gallium

Question 100

For the reaction below, element X is a _________ element.

Choose one answer.

	a. Group 1
	b. Group 2
	c. Group 5
	d. Group 7