1
Which of the following is an example of a positive feedback operating in a self-organizing system?
Choose one answer.
a. A society facing declining energy resources decides to decrease the complexity of the transportation system for goods and people, which decreases energy use.
b. As water becomes scarce, communities often enact laws to promote water conservation.
c. When one ant finds a food resource and lays down a pheromone trail, more ants follow the trail and lay down their own pheromones, prompting more ants to follow the trail.
d. Birds avoid congregating in the same area as other birds decrease the risk of predation.
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Question 2
Resilience of a complex system can be measured by which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. The amount of stress or disturbance a system can endure without a change in function or structure
b. The ability of the system to self-organize its processes and components
c. The increase in capacity of the system for learning and adaptation to external change
d. All of the above
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Question 3
According to Panarchy theory, as a young system begins to mature, the system experiences an increase in which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. Diversity
b. Connectedness
c. Efficiency
d. All of the above
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Question 4
Which of the following attributes of complex systems have NOT been seen in social-environmental systems?
Choose one answer.
a. A complete lack of emergent behaviors
b. A hierarchy of complex systems
c. Multiple possible pathways so that the system can evolve or change over time
d. Many positive and negative feedbacks operating at different scales
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Question 5
Catastrophes, hystereses, thresholds, and tipping points all have what in common?
Choose one answer.
a. All are examples of nonlinear behaviors in complex systems.
b. All are very rare occurrences in complex systems.
c. None of these behaviors are possible when positive feedbacks exist.
d. All of them occur when a stable attractor gets stronger.
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Question 6
Which of the following is an example of a negative feedback that may increase a society's resilience?
Choose one answer.
a. Global warming due to greenhouse gas emissions leads to an ice-free Arctic Ocean, prompting drilling for fossil fuel resources for energy.
b. A small country's main trading partner suffers an economic collapse and civil war, decreasing the small country's reserves of food and energy resources.
c. Women with easy access to birth control decide to have fewer children during periods of food shortages.
d. Deforestation increases when timber and fuelwood supplies dramatically increase in price.
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Question 7
Why does Carl Folke (among others) call the current period the "Anthropocene?"
Choose one answer.
a. Humans are evolving more quickly now than in the past.
b. The industrial revolution was due to human ingenuity.
c. Humans are improving the resilience of the global system through increased connectivity and trade.
d. Human activities are governing most of the dynamics and resilience in global and regional systems.
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Question 8
Which of the following has NOT been hypothesized as a factor in societal collapse?
Choose one answer.
a. The loss of friendly trading partners
b. A shortage of currency
c. Sudden environmental degradation or change
d. Overpopulation or exceeding an area's carrying capacity
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Question 9
Criticisms of the "societal collapse" and "state failure" hypotheses share which commonality?
Choose one answer.
a. Natural resources are rarely implicated in true collapses and failures.
b. Contemporary societies are much less vulnerable due to fossil fuel use.
c. While collapse and failure may happen theoretically, they are rarely observed.
d. Collapse and failure are assessed using a contemporary Western bias.
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Question 10
Which of the following is an example of a threat to a larger system's resilience emerging from many small decisions?
Choose one answer.
a. Individuals in a farming community shop more often at a grocery store owned and supplied by a foreign company.
b. Homeowners decide to landscape their properties with plants native to the area.
c. The United Nations decides to assess a carbon tax on large oil companies.
d. The United States imposes an import tax on all goods from Chinese factories.
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Question 11
Which of the following factors is NOT a likely factor in the collapse of the Mayan Empire?
Choose one answer.
a. Soil erosion and depletion
b. Overpopulation
c. Deforestation
d. Military coup
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Question 12
Which of the following countries is currently in something like a collapsed or failed state due primarily to environmental problems?
Choose one answer.
a. Haiti
b. Afghanistan
c. Somalia
d. Sudan
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Question 13
Which of the following factors has NOT been advocated as a likely factor in the collapse of the Roman Empire?
Choose one answer.
a. The energy return on investment on conquering distant areas was too low (that is, it took more energy to feed and transport the army than it got in return from the new areas).
b. The polytheistic religion of the Romans was violently replaced by the monotheistic religions of the conquered societies.
c. Barbarian tribes overthrew the Roman Empire.
d. The increase in governance complexity outstripped the available tax base to support it.
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Question 14
Which of the following are NOT defining characteristics of a societal collapse?
Choose one answer.
a. Depopulated urban centers and smaller, more isolated communities
b. Abandonment and decay of large-scale infrastructure (e.g., roads, water delivery networks, large temples)
c. Plagues and famines
d. All of the above
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Question 15
Which of the following natural resources are often used to purchase weapons and fuel civil wars in African countries (also known as "The Resource Curse")?
Choose one answer.
a. Precious metals, diamonds, timber
b. Cotton and hemp
c. Corn, rice, and other agricultural crops
d. Water and rice
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Question 16
Complete the following statement. A societal dependence on nuclear energy can be disruptive in the long term in the same way as a dependence upon fossil fuels, because:
Choose one answer.
a. nuclear energy releases greenhouse gases into the atmosphere.
b. both require vast amounts of water in the production of energy.
c. nuclear energy may demonstrate a "speak" when mined uranium sources are depleted.
d. societal backlash to the use of both nuclear energy and fossil fuels minimizes their contribution to global energy production.
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Question 17
The combination of deforestation for wood-based fuel and increase in the use of fossil fuels have had which consequences?
Choose one answer.
a. Species distribution ranges have shifted towards the poles and higher elevations.
b. Global average temperatures have increased.
c. Concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere has increased.
d. All of the above
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Question 18
Which of the following is an example of a renewable energy source?
Choose one answer.
a. Petroleum
b. Natural gas
c. Wind
d. Nuclear
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Question 19
Deforestation contributes to climate change in what ways?
Choose one answer.
a. Emits carbon dioxide to the atmosphere
b. Can reduce albedo and therefore increase surface temperatures
c. Reduces carbon sequestration rates
d. All of the above
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Question 20
Complete the following statement. Biofuels, based on forest residues and woody biomass, are "carbon neutral," because:
Choose one answer.
a. forests reflect sunlight and decrease global warming.
b. biofuels release less carbon dioxide than fossil fuels.
c. the amount of carbon harvested for fuel represents the same amount of carbon sequestered by the plant.
d. the amount of carbon harvested for fuel is much greater than the amount of carbon sequestered by the plant.
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Question 21
"Peak oil" refers to which of the following situations?
Choose one answer.
a. Oil production reaches its highest possible rate.
b. Discoveries of new oil fields do not keep pace with oil production.
c. Oil production does not keep pace with consumption.
d. The most innovative technologies in oil refining occur.
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Question 22
Which of the following is an example of a nonrenewable energy source?
Choose one answer.
a. Solar
b. Hydropower
c. Biomass
d. Natural gas
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Question 23
Some sustainability experts advocate eating locally produced food over organically produced food, for which of the following reasons?
Choose one answer.
a. Organically produced food is difficult to certify.
b. Local food is healthier.
c. Local food has fewer food miles and fewer carbon emissions.
d. Locally produced food is more profitable than organically produced food for farmers.
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Question 24
Which of the following is NOT a major impact of industrial agriculture as typically practiced?
Choose one answer.
a. Increased poverty among farmers in industrialized countries
b. Pollution of waterways by fertilizers
c. Conversion of land from natural habitats results in biodiversity loss
d. Soil depleting faster than it can be formed
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Question 25
Which of the following technologies were used to maximize crop productivity via the Green Revolution?
Choose one answer.
a. Fertilizers produced from natural gas
b. Herbicides developed from chemical weapons
c. Irrigation powered by fossil fuels
d. All of the above
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Question 26
What is virtual water?
Choose one answer.
a. Water used for Information Technology equipment
b. Water embedded in products throughout their production process
c. Liquids (other than water) that have the same properties as water
d. All of the above
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Question 27
Why does the Slow Food movement advocate for locally produced food?
Choose one answer.
a. Local food supports local jobs (like farming).
b. Local food is healthier (fewer preservatives).
c. Support for local foods preserves cultural heritage and diversity.
d. All of the above
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Question 28
What is one critical underlying cause of the increase of health problems in human populations who have recently switched from hunter-gatherer to sedentary agricultural food systems?
Choose one answer.
a. Hunter-gatherer diets contain far more sodium than a diet with many processed foods.
b. Grains have lower levels of phytochemicals and micronutrients than uncultivated plants.
c. Growing row crops requires far more physical exertion per day than hunting and gathering.
d. Grain consumption requires more protein in the diet for nutritional balance than uncultivated plant consumption.
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Question 29
Why does Wes Jackson (of The Land Institute in Kansas, USA) advocate for the use of polyculture in agricultural areas in the eastern United States?
Choose one answer.
a. Different cultures have different knowledge about agricultural practices.
b. Row crops interspersed among hedgerows and windbreaks provide habitat for predators of crop pests.
c. Intergrowing many kinds of perennial plants mimics the tallgrass prairies of the area; therefore, it is more productive and sustainable.
d. Using many different strains of a crop on the same field gives higher yields than planting a field with all genetically identical clones.
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Question 30
Why was the impact of early agriculture on the environment much smaller than today?
Choose one answer.
a. The amount of land converted from natural habitats was very low, human populations were smaller, and natural resources remained abundant.
b. Early agriculture used natural resources far more efficiently than today.
c. Industrial agricultural practices use irrigation and early agriculture did not.
d. Early agriculture was equally destructive as today's agriculture.
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Question 31
Organic farming is now defined by which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. The use of animal wastes for fertilizer
b. The use of Integrated Pest Management in the place of pesticides
c. State-level laws (e.g., California, Oregon) that prescribe very specific agricultural methods
d. Indicators of sustainability for agricultural production on large farms
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Question 32
Why does food produced by industrial agriculture have a much larger energy cost?
Choose one answer.
a. Energy is required to pump groundwater for irrigating crops.
b. Transporting food around the world requires energy.
c. Animals are typically fed grains, which require energy to grow.
d. All of the above
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Question 33
When a wetland is drained and converted to agriculture, which of the following ecosystem services is NOT affected?
Choose one answer.
a. Water regulation
b. Soil formation
c. Food provisioning
d. Nutrient cycling
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Question 34
Due to climate change, why will oceans provide fewer ecosystem services?
Choose one answer.
a. Ocean acidification will negatively impact marine food webs.
b. Oceans are becoming warmer, altering the breeding success of many marine organisms.
c. Ocean acidification will alter how sound travels, potentially impacting animals that use sonar and echolocation.
d. All of the above
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Question 35
Which of the following is NOT an ecosystem service provided by forests?
Choose one answer.
a. Carbon sequestration
b. Nutrient cycling
c. Timber
d. Recreation
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Question 36
Which of the following main drivers of biodiversity loss shows evidence of reversing or easing?
Choose one answer.
a. Overexploitation
b. Invasive species
c. Climate change
d. None of the above
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Question 37
When rivers are dammed and wetlands are drained, what is a typical impact?
Choose one answer.
a. Freshwater species go extinct.
b. Indigenous tribes lose their water supplies and fishing resources.
c. Indigenous people are forced to leave the area, and their language and heritage is gradually lost.
d. All of the above
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Question 38
Which group of organisms is currently experiencing the greatest loss in species?
Choose one answer.
a. Mammals
b. Amphibians
c. Conifers
d. Fungi
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Question 39
Which of the following is NOT a possible result of widespread dieback (or deforestation) of the Amazon rainforest?
Choose one answer.
a. Improved soil fertility
b. Continued climate change due to increased carbon emissions
c. Reductions in regional precipitation
d. Massive biodiversity loss
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Question 40
Which of the following goals of the Convention on Biological Diversity were achieved globally by 2010?
Choose one answer.
a. Reduce pressure from habitat loss, land use change and degradation, and unsustainable water use
b. Promote the conservation of genetic diversity
c. Maintain socio-cultural diversity of indigenous and local communities
d. None of the above
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Question 41
Why are cultural-linguistic diversity and biological diversity most likely correlated?
Choose one answer.
a. Humans naturally increase diversity through agricultural activities.
b. A diversity of species and varieties increases the kinds of belief systems and livelihoods that are possible.
c. Species diversity generates faster evolution in associated human cultures.
d. Cultural-linguistic and biological diversity are not correlated.
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Question 42
Human cultures historically have maintained local and regional diversity through which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. Transporting domesticated plants and animals as humans colonize new areas
b. Recycling waste back into the system to maintain soil fertility
c. Setting aside and protecting natural places for religious or spiritual reasons
d. Cultivating and domesticating particularly productive varieties
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Question 43
What are the current estimated rates of biodiversity and linguistic diversity loss?
Choose one answer.
a. Species extinction rates are at 10 times the background rate, and 10% of the world's languages will be extinct by 2100.
b. 1/4th of species and languages will be extinct by 2500.
c. Species extinction rates are at 1000 times the background rate, and 50-90% of the world's languages will be extinct by 2100.
d. The loss of species and languages are expected to level off by 2050.
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Question 44
Traditional Ecological Knowledge can help modern societies solve problems such as which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. The development of new medicines from little-known plant and animal species
b. Sustainable harvesting rates
c. Examples of local adaptations to climate change
d. All of the above
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Question 45
The most influential change on humans and their environments in migration and trade patterns in the past 200 years has been which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. The spread of the use of English as a language of science and trade
b. The increased speed and distance of trade via airplanes and ships
c. The homogenization of diets across the world
d. The advancements in modern medicine (e.g., vaccinations)
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Question 46
Which scenario most clearly might lead to a loss of societal resilience?
Choose one answer.
a. An invasion of water hyacinth in a lake increases the breeding grounds for mosquitoes, which can carry malaria. A subsistence fishing community lives along the shores of that lake.
b. A new immigration policy allows young immigrants who have newly graduated with advanced degrees remain in a country with an aging population.
c. A European species of trout (a fish) is released into an American lake where native trout have been extinct for one hundred years.
d. In a small coastal city, a local fish canning industry goes bankrupt, but a new port facility is built to receive imported goods and is connected to an active rail line to the capitol.
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Question 47
Why are invasive species successful?
Choose one answer.
a. Because they are not accompanied by their predators or competitors from their native range
b. Because they are larger-bodied than non-invasive species
c. Because they create toxins to kill off native competitors
d. Because they travel with human populations that carefully cultivate them
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Question 48
Complete the following statement. Weedy species are those that:
Choose one answer.
a. create havoc in ecosystems.
b. can be native but simply expanding their range.
c. are agricultural crops that have become habituated to a local area.
d. are always non-native.
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Question 49
Which of the following is a common pathway for a plant species to invade a new area?
Choose one answer.
a. Through intentional introduction for a purpose (such as decoration or forage for livestock)
b. Through normal actions associated with trade (such as on the tires of long-distance trucks)
c. Through the material used to package traded goods
d. All of the above
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Question 50
Which of the following industries in the United States have suffered the greatest economic impact from invasive species?
Choose one answer.
a. Tourism
b. Fisheries
c. Agriculture
d. Water supply
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Question 51
Globalization describes which of the following processes?
Choose one answer.
a. A rapid increase in social, economic, and environmental interconnectedness
b. A transition to more modern activities and use of technology simultaneously in widely dispersed societies
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above
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Question 52
Which two trends significantly weakened the resilience of the fishing industry in Gujarat, India?
Choose one answer.
a. An increase in local demand for fish plus newer fishing boats
b. An increase in international demand for fish plus new fishing boats and technology
c. A natural disaster that dramatically reduced fish stocks and destroyed many fishing boats
d. The fishing industry has always been resilient
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Question 53
What are the two major factors that drive migration of Mexican citizens to the United States?
Choose one answer.
a. The international price of oil and the relatively low wage rate in Mexico
b. The ratification of NAFTA and famine in Mexico
c. The massive privatization of Mexican natural resources and the relatively low wage rate in the United States
d. None of the above
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Question 54
Which of the following is a consequence of economic policy in the United States (e.g., NAFTA) and globally (IMF requirements)?
Choose one answer.
a. A massive flow of agricultural products from the United States into Mexico
b. Large numbers of Mexican citizens to migrate into the United States
c. The conversion of Mexican worker-owned land to individually-owned land
d. All of the above
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Question 55
The industrialization of shrimp farming in Thailand has had which of the following environmental consequences?
Choose one answer.
a. A dramatic increase in mangrove forests along the coasts
b. A decline in wild populations of shrimp
c. Massive water pollution
d. An increase in marine predator populations such as sharks
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Question 56
What is "deviant" globalization?
Choose one answer.
a. Trade patterns that are skewed because of trade embargoes
b. The migration of criminals and other deviants
c. When wealthy people invest in poor countries
d. The flow of immoral goods and services such as narcotics and slave labor
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Question 57
Global movement of illegal goods is made possible by which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. Corrupt traders
b. A "moral gradient" where the good is legal in some countries but illegal in others
c. The lack of information on international trade laws
d. The lack of international treaties
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Question 58
Which of the following regions suffer from the highest number of invasive species?
Choose one answer.
a. Europe
b. Africa
c. Regions with a large amount of exchange in traded goods
d. Regions that have low rates of disturbance
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Question 59
Complete the following statement. Carrying capacity is the relationship of:
Choose one answer.
a. a population of organisms to its available resources.
b. the growth rate of an economic system relative to demand.
c. an ecosystem's ability to treat waste to the rate at which pollution is dumped into it.
d. a container's rate of expansion to the amount of material that can be carried in it.
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Question 60
Pollution prevention policies in wealthy countries generally do not address which of the following problems?
Choose one answer.
a. Unfair consumption patterns
b. A linear consumption system (from virgin materials to landfills) with inadequate recycling
c. Products designed to degrade quickly
d. All of the above
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Question 61
In the absence of human population control policies, a population in which most of the people are below age 40 is often driven by which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. Short life expectancy
b. High birth rates
c. High infant mortality rates
d. All of the above
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Question 62
Which policy targets are most important to track when trying to drive a demographic transition in a country?
Choose one answer.
a. Decreasing birth rates
b. Increasing life expectancy
c. Decreasing rate of natural increase
d. All of the above
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Question 63
The United States has what percentage of pre-European settlement forests remaining?
Choose one answer.
a. 50%
b. 25%
c. 4%
d. 1%
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Question 64
What is a proven approach for reducing population growth?
Choose one answer.
a. Allow women access to contraception
b. Per child taxes on families
c. Male sterilization programs
d. Reduce health care availability
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Question 65
What would be an effective mechanism for curbing consumption?
Choose one answer.
a. Reduce population growth in developing countries
b. Increase the employment rate
c. Reduce available credit
d. Make "planned obsolescence" illegal
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Question 66
How many planets would be required if all humans consumed at the same rate as American citizens?
Choose one answer.
a. 100 planets
b. 50 planets
c. 3-5 planets
d. 1 planet
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Question 67
Laws that would protect human health and the environment in developing countries would do which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. Make it illegal to export e-waste to non-OECD (developing) countries with inadequate human and environmental protection laws
b. Increase shipments of toxic waste to developed countries
c. Decrease the number of treaties addressing e-waste trade
d. None of the above
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Question 68
Which of the following is an impact on human populations of migration?
Choose one answer.
a. Immigrants can decrease the average age of the receiving population.
b. Emigration can decrease the pressure on local natural resources (and hence fertility and reproduction rates) of the source population.
c. Immigrants can increase the genetic and cultural diversity of the receiving population.
d. All of the above
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Question 69
Which of the following is a primary driver of migration from rural areas into cities?
Choose one answer.
a. Loss of access to natural resources
b. Search for employment
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above
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Question 70
Complete the following statement. Recycling cannot completely solve the "linear system on a finite planet" problem, because:
Choose one answer.
a. recycling is also linear.
b. many products cannot be recycled after they are used.
c. recycled products cannot be reused.
d. recycling requires too many virgin resources.
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Question 71
How does the rapid increase in urbanized populations (50% of the global human population by 2000) benefit the environment?
Choose one answer.
a. Urban dwellers recycle more than rural populations.
b. Urban dwellers use less energy.
c. Urban areas will never benefit the environment.
d. Urban populations occupy far less land area than rural populations.
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Question 72
Which nutrient is vital to agricultural production but is only sourced from mineral deposits (that is, cannot be generated from fossil fuels) which are finite and running out?
Choose one answer.
a. Nitrogen
b. Phosphorus
c. Carbon
d. Magnesium
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Question 73
Fossil fuels are currently used to make a variety of which of the following materials that do not quickly degrade and are currently threatening marine ecosystems globally?
Choose one answer.
a. Plastics
b. Electronics
c. Automobile components (e.g., tires)
d. Fertilizers
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Question 74
Which solutions could contribute to more sustainable use of phosphorus resources?
Choose one answer.
a. Eating less meat
b. Reducing the amount of wasted food (particularly if it goes to landfills)
c. Capturing phosphorus in human waste through composting toilets
d. All of the above
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Question 75
Which of the following resources are all predicted to peak by 2030, affecting the production of electronics, construction, and fine art?
Choose one answer.
a. Tin
b. Gold
c. Lead
d. All of the above
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Question 76
Why is focusing on an increase in soil carbon storage advantageous?
Choose one answer.
a. It can slow climate change due to carbon dioxide emissions.
b. It can help increase soil availability, quality, and fertility.
c. It can improve local water quality.
d. All of the above
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Question 77
What is the biggest concern regarding the depletion of deep groundwater aquifers?
Choose one answer.
a. Massive sinkholes could open up.
b. The water pumped from them is mostly used for irrigation, and agricultural production will plummet when the aquifers are depleted.
c. Cities will become uninhabitable once their primary source of drinking water disappears.
d. Depletion increases the concentration of toxic chemicals in the aquifers, making them increasingly poisonous.
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Question 78
Fossil fuel used by human societies contribute to alterations in the nitrogen cycle through which two flows?
Choose one answer.
a. Burning fuels releases nitrogen to the atmosphere, and fossil fuels are used to produce synthetic nitrogen fertilizers.
b. Fossil fuels release nitrogen when livestock are moved to slaughter houses, and livestock emit nitrogen directly through flatulence.
c. Soot (containing nitrogen) from fossil fuel burning induces lightening, which fixates nitrogen in the atmosphere.
d. Fossil fuels do not release nitrogen.
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Question 79
When does eutrophication occur?
Choose one answer.
a. When excess nitrogen and phosphorus leach off of agricultural fields into streams and lakes
b. When aquatic organisms die more quickly
c. When algae fix excess nitrogen from the atmosphere
d. When algae prompt increasing phosphorus release from stream and lake sediments
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Question 80
Which critical element for agriculture is projected to peak in the mid-twenty-first century, with the majority of the source in northwestern Africa?
Choose one answer.
a. Nitrogen
b. Magnesium
c. Phosphorus
d. Silica
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Question 81
Why do synthetic plastics not degrade quickly in landfills?
Choose one answer.
a. They are not exposed to oxygen, heat, or UV light.
b. They were purposely designed not to degrade under any conditions.
c. They become contaminated with rotting organic matter and bind to this matter.
d. The necessary bacteria are not present.
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Question 82
Most of the plastic volume by weight found in municipal solid waste (mostly going to landfills) is found in which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. Electronic waste
b. Containers and packaging
c. Appliances
d. Office waste
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Question 83
The I=PAT equation is a measure for which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. The influence of the environment on people, activities, and technology
b. The impact on the environment of a specific human population, its affluence, and the technologies it uses
c. The sustainability innovations that come from people, access, and telecommunication
d. The impact on future generations from environmental pressures, access, and transportation of an economic industry or sector
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Question 84
The stakeholders directly involved in the honey bee Colony Collapse Disorder include which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. Beekeepers in the United States, Europe, and Asia
b. Farmers
c. Consumers of fruits, nuts, and vegetables
d. All of the above
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Question 85
The Ecological Footprint of a country would include which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. The total area required to produce all of the resources that are consumed and the area required to assimilate all of the waste produced
b. The combined weight of all of the resources consumed and waste produced
c. The amount of resources and wastes that are traded to other countries
d. The cost of the resources consumed and waste produced, relative to the value of those resources and wastes not consumed or produced
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Question 86
Which of the following represents an example of incongruence between values and behaviors?
Choose one answer.
a. A poor couple in a developing country purposely has eight children to help with farm labor.
b. A person who loses their home to a tornado that was made more powerful by an unusually warm spring front drives a container truck for a living.
c. A group of sustainable development professionals travel to a meeting in a distant location, specializing in wealthy holiday travelers.
d. The country that is the most responsible for carbon emissions suffers fewer losses from climate change-driven sea level rise than countries with very low emissions.
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Question 87
When an individual makes a decision regarding mode of transportation, the individual is influenced by which of the following systems?
Choose one answer.
a. Available modes of transportation (e.g., nearby public transportation stop)
b. Local transportation boards that decide how to fund different modes of transportation
c. Transportation policy written at the national level
d. All of the above
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Question 88
According to the Bruntland Commission, what is the definition of sustainable development?
Choose one answer.
a. "Development that does not compromise the resources available to future generations."
b. "Development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs."
c. "Development that allows all people to meet their own needs."
d. "The use of natural resources and human talents that allow all societies to reach their full potential."
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Question 89
Which of the following is an example of an unforeseen negative consequence in sustainable development policy?
Choose one answer.
a. Free food given as humanitarian aid to poor countries forces local farmers to sell their farms and move to cities (local people will not pay for locally produced food if it being given for free).
b. Subsidies to produce biofuel ethanol from corn (a carbon neutral fuel) to mitigate climate change causes corn prices to spike and poor people to struggle to buy food.
c. Genetically modified seed that allows farmers to avoid spending money on pesticides prevents farmers from saving seeds from year to year, forcing them to buy new seeds every year.
d. All of the above
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Question 90
Which of the following identifies the stakeholders in a sustainable development decision regarding water rights to an aquifer?
Choose one answer.
a. All individuals that are affected by the decisions made
b. All individuals that own property above the aquifer
c. Officials from the government that regulates aquifer use
d. All property owners that purchase water from the aquifer
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Question 91
Diversification is a strategy that can make which industries more sustainable?
Choose one answer.
a. Agriculture
b. Energy production
c. Forestry
d. All of the above
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Question 92
Complete the following statement. Payment for Ecosystem Services is a strategy that:
Choose one answer.
a. puts conservation funds in a trust to be used by future generations.
b. pays landowners for preserving natural habitats based on the amount of services the habitats provide.
c. requires corporations to pay for the damages they inflict on ecosystems.
d. employs subsistence farmers to implement sustainable farming techniques over large areas.
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Question 93
Complete the following statement. Combined heat and power has been advocated as a sustainable solution for energy issues, because:
Choose one answer.
a. it reduces carbon dioxide emissions and hence mitigates climate change.
b. it reduces land use, water pollution, and other environmental issues associated with energy generation.
c. it reduces the cost of energy production by eliminating wasted energy.
d. All of the above
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Question 94
Complete the following statement. Although wind and solar are intermittent energy sources, they are favored by rural areas in developing countries, because:
Choose one answer.
a. they do not have to be hooked up to a centralized grid to access, and they can be harnessed with spare parts.
b. they are cheaper than local bioenergy sources.
c. they are more reliable and excess can be sold back to the power company to generate income.
d. these energy sources are typically not favored by people in rural areas of developing countries.
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Question 95
Why do sustainable development professionals generally advocate for more decentralized, local agricultural production?
Choose one answer.
a. It gives farmers more control over production.
b. It gives consumers more control over what they eat.
c. It allows for more holistic farming practices (e.g., using composted livestock manure on crops).
d. All of the above
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Question 96
Which of the following is the most direct social benefit of urban farming?
Choose one answer.
a. Reducing water pollution
b. Teaching urban youth how food is produced and improving their access to fresh fruits and vegetables
c. Increasing the number of times a dollar circulates in a community
d. Reducing vacant lots
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Question 97
According to some biologists, what is the first step necessary to reduce biodiversity loss?
Choose one answer.
a. Prevent the expansion of agriculture
b. Reclassify subspecies as species
c. View species extinctions caused by humans as a moral wrong, on par with slavery
d. Institute captive breeding programs
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Question 98
What is the United Nations Biotrade Initiative?
Choose one answer.
a. A global initiative to stop the illegal trade in endangered species
b. A country-level program for the sustainable sale of goods and services from native biodiversity
c. A country-level information campaign on conserving local species
d. A seed-trading program for farmers
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Question 99
What is the philosophy behind a congestion tax?
Choose one answer.
a. Local governments should profit from the use of their roadways.
b. People that drive into the city during busy times should be fined.
c. Traffic-free roadways are a commonly owned but finite resource, and people should pay to use them.
d. Taxes on driving will induce more people to take public transportation, making it more economically viable.
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Question 100
According to Lester Brown, what are two main facets of "The New Economy"?
Choose one answer.
a. All energy will be renewable and waste will be minimized.
b. All food will be organic and everyone will be vegetarian.
c. All people will consume the way Chinese people consume and recycle the way Indian people recycle.
d. Oil prices will dictate food prices, and food prices will dictate transportation prices.
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