1
Fill in the blank. A reading strategy that improves comprehension and involves making educated guesses about what will happen in the future based on what you currently know is called _______.
Choose one answer.
a. synthesizing information
b. inference
c. previewing text
d. prediction
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Question 2
Fill in the blank. A reading strategy that involves deep thinking and reading between the lines to imply things that are not directly stated is called _______.
Choose one answer.
a. synthesizing information
b. inference
c. previewing text
d. prediction
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Question 3
Fill in the blank. Word parts such as re- and dis- that are added to the beginning of a word and influence a word’s meaning are called _______.
Choose one answer.
a. root words
b. prefixes
c. context clues
d. definitive phrases
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Question 4
In an argumentative article, an author makes the claim that citizens should stand up to stores who distribute plastic bags at checkout, because these plastic bags are incredibly harmful to the environment. Which of the following statements does NOT lend support to this claim?
Choose one answer.
a. Scientists have identified in the ocean a collection of plastic debris comparable to the better known “Pacific garbage patch” that’s widely described as being twice the size of Texas.
b. Plastic bags negatively affect on wildlife when ingested.
c. Plastic bags are cheaper to distribute than other alternatives, and businesses might lose customers if they didn’t offer a way to transport purchases.
d. The petroleum used in manufacturing plastic bags contributes to air pollution.
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Question 5
In the excerpt below, which technique is the author using to teach readers about the character Becky?

“After returning from her friend’s house, Gracie told her brother Ben, “Whenever I hang out with Becky, it leaves me feeling uneasy and on edge, like I’m not good enough. Because Becky always makes mean comments about other people and makes sure I know what she thinks is wrong with me makes me think she’s not the nicest person. I don’t think I really want to be friends with someone who makes me feel bad all the time.”
Choose one answer.
a. Describing a character’s looks
b. Describing a character’s effect on other characters
c. Describing a character’s speech
d. Describing a character
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Question 6
In the words marine and maritime, what does the root mari mean?
Choose one answer.
a. ship
b. hydrated
c. water
d. sea
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Question 7
In the words submarine and subject, what does the root sub mean?
Choose one answer.
a. Under
b. System
c. Ship
d. Over
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Question 8
In words such as navigate and naval, the root word nav has what meaning?
Choose one answer.
a. Sea
b. Direction
c. Ship
d. Oceanic
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Question 9
The following definition describes what term?

“The method an author uses to describe characters and their personalities. The author achieves this by developing characters’ speech, thoughts, effects on others, actions, and looks throughout the story.”
Choose one answer.
a. Characterization
b. Exposition
c. Character Traits
d. Climax
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Question 10
Use context clues to determine the meaning of the bold word in the sentence below:

Because I know Jimmy is smart, I was utterly confused when he did such a vacuous thing as to jump off the roof of our house, which broke 12 of his bones.
Choose one answer.
a. Annoying
b. Intelligent
c. Cowardly
d. Stupid
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Question 11
Use context clues to determine the meaning of the bold word in the sentence below:

The speaker at the school assembly was so inarticulate that we all left his presentation wondering what the message was and wondering why our school invited him to speak.
Choose one answer.
a. Quiet
b. Clearly spoken
c. Unclearly spoken
d. Speaking in a foreign language
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Question 12
Which of the following statements best describes a similarity between Captain Nemo and Pierre Aronnax in Jules Verne’s Twenty Thousand Leagues Under the Sea?
Choose one answer.
a. Both are Frenchmen.
b. Both are professors.
c. Both designed and built the Nautilus.
d. Both have backgrounds in science and engineering.
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Question 13
Which of the following statements best summarizes a major conflict in the plot of Jules Verne’s Twenty Thousand Leagues Under the Sea?
Choose one answer.
a. Aronnax and Nemo must overcome the effects of nature to persevere and build the ship of their dreams, the Nautilus.
b. Aronnax is forced to choose between his love of science and his compassion for humanity when Captain Nemo begins using science for evil.
c. Ned Land must overcome his difficulties with Pierre Aronnax so that he can return home to his family.
d. None of these choices
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Question 14
Which of the following statements best summarizes the setting of Twenty Thousand Leagues Under the Sea?
Choose one answer.
a. The early 1900s, aboard the Nautilus as it traverses the Pacific, Atlantic, Indian, and Arctic Oceans
b. The late 1860s, aboard the Nautilus as it traverses the fictitious oceans created by Jules Verne
c. The late 1860s, aboard the Nautilus as it traverses the Pacific, Atlantic, Indian, and Arctic Oceans.
d. The late 1860s, aboard the Nautilus as it is attacked by a sea monster in the Caribbean Sea
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Question 15
Which of the following would be the best topic if you were asked to write an argumentative essay that presents a logical argument and that could be backed up by significant supporting evidence?
Choose one answer.
a. The Dangers of Tobacco Smoke
b. All about My Pet
c. How to Make a Terrarium
d. My Favorite Vacation Destination
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Question 16
Which of the following supports the idea that a story’s theme is about acceptance?
Choose one answer.
a. The young girl works hard and overcomes obstacles to reach her dreams.
b. The two students from very different backgrounds overcome their own prejudices and biases about each other and become an unlikely pair of best friends.
c. Because his family is struggling to survive, Theo accepts donations and charitable acts from kind people who want to help him.
d. The main character in the novel proves that the only person you can change is yourself.
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Question 17
As skilled writers do, J. M. Barrie began the story of Peter Pan with an excellent hook. Which of the following is NOT a type of hook commonly used in narrative writing?
Choose one answer.
a. Presentation of research data
b. Starting in the middle of action
c. Dialogue
d. Painting a picture of the scene through vivid sensory language
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Question 18
During the plot of Peter Pan, for what are Peter Pan and Tinkerbell searching?
Choose one answer.
a. Tinkerbell’s broken wing
b. Peter Pan’s shadow
c. Tinkerbell’s parents
d. A wife for Peter
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Question 19
In Peter Pan, why did Peter Pan teach Wendy how to fly?
Choose one answer.
a. So that she could protect herself from Tiger Lily
b. Because Wendy begged him to do so
c. So that Wendy could go back to Neverland and read to the Lost Boys
d. Because Mr. Darling paid Peter to teach her
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Question 20
What genre best describes the excerpt “The Boys’ Ambition” that you read from Mark Twain’s Life on the Mississippi?
Choose one answer.
a. Poetry
b. Fantasy
c. Memoir or personal narrative
d. Adventure
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Question 21
What is a common theme shared by both “The Boys’ Ambition” in Mark Twain’s Life on the Mississippi and in J. M. Barrie’s Peter Pan.
Choose one answer.
a. There are no similarities.
b. Parents can be too cautious and may interfere with childhood fun.
c. You shouldn’t set goals and have ambitions when you are young because you don’t know what life will bring.
d. The joys and dreams of childhood are magical life moments, even if they never become realities.
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Question 22
Which of the following actions would you take during the editing stage of the writing process?
Choose one answer.
a. Rearranging your paragraphs to improve the flow of the story
b. Checking for misspelled words and correcting errors you noticed in punctuation of dialogue
c. Adding more dialogue between characters to make the story more exciting
d. Adding graphics and illustrations to bring your story to life
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Question 23
Which of the following is a characteristic of the sentence fluency writing trait?
Choose one answer.
a. Excellent punctuation and grammar
b. Varied sentence lengths and beginnings
c. Vivid descriptive language
d. Well-sequenced ideas and content
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Question 24
Which of the following is a characteristic of the conventions writing trait?
Choose one answer.
a. Excellent use of capitalization, punctuation, and grammar
b. Varied sentence lengths and beginnings
c. Vivid descriptive language
d. Well-sequenced ideas and content
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Question 25
Which of the following is a significant difference between Wendy and Peter Pan that affects the plot in Peter Pan?
Choose one answer.
a. Both Peter Pan and Wendy face Captain Hook as an enemy.
b. Wendy is a girl while Peter Pan is a boy.
c. Peter Pan can read, but Wendy cannot read.
d. Peter Pan has no family while Wendy comes from a loving and supportive family.
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Question 26
Which of the following is an accurate sequence of the steps of the writing process?
Choose one answer.
a. Brainstorming, prewriting, drafting, revising, editing, and publishing
b. Brainstorming, prewriting, revising, drafting, editing, revising, and publishing
c. Brainstorming, prewriting, drafting, editing, publishing, and revising
d. Prewriting, brainstorming, drafting, revising, editing, and publishing
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Question 27
Which of the following is an example of a sentence demonstrating excellence in the writing trait of voice?
Choose one answer.
a. The girls slowly got up and headed back to class.
b. Exhilarated by the news, the spritely young boy bounded up the stairs and gleefully waltzed back to class.
c. The children were excited to hear that their father had returned safely from the war.
d. None of these choices
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Question 28
Which of the following is NOT a helpful criterion to use when selecting a topic for a personal narrative?
Choose one answer.
a. The event you choose to write about should be a single, solitary event from your childhood.
b. The event should be something that taught you a lesson.
c. The event should not have actually happened to or involved you.
d. The event should have changed you in some way.
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Question 29
Which of the following is NOT a purpose of reading like a writer?
Choose one answer.
a. Reading for clues about choices the author made about text organization
b. Reading for content and to better understand ideas presented in the text
c. Reading to identify techniques and word choices the author used in the text
d. Reading to locate different text features to get ideas for your own writing
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Question 30
Which of the following scenes would be best described by the word tranquil?
Choose one answer.
a. The hallways of a school building during the last day of school
b. Children on a rollercoaster at a theme park
c. A calm, empty lake at sunrise
d. A birthday party
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Question 31
Which of the following statements about the revision process is TRUE?
Choose one answer.
a. Revision includes correcting capitalization, punctuation, and grammar issues.
b. If you have misspelled words, you should correct them all during the revision step.
c. Key parts of revision are taking out unnecessary details, and adding and rearranging information.
d. If you are running short on time, revision is the one step of the writing process that is permissible to skip.
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Question 32
Which of the following statements relates to a theme in J. M. Barrie’s Peter Pan?
Choose one answer.
a. Growing up is an unfortunate thing that everyone is forced to do.
b. Though childhood is magical, growing up allows you to discover yourself and can be an adventure, too.
c. Everyone will have to face his or her enemies and learn from his or her mistakes.
d. Both B and C describe themes in the novel.
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Question 33
In the sentence below, I acts as what type of pronoun?

I am running low on energy after three days of hiking and camping.
Choose one answer.
a. Objective case
b. Possessive case
c. Nominative case
d. Subjective case
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Question 34
In the sentence below, my acts as what type of pronoun?

Alexandra Grace gave my gift to Genevieve since I couldn’t attend the party.
Choose one answer.
a. objective case
b. subjective case
c. possessive case
d. basket case
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Question 35
In the words inscribe and transcribe, what does the root word scribe mean?
Choose one answer.
a. Onto
b. Write
c. Across
d. Hand
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Question 36
In words such as union and unity, what is the meaning of the root word uni?
Choose one answer.
a. One
b. Alone
c. Together
d. Humanity
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Question 37
The neighborhood bully was _______ for terrorizing the younger children and pets who lived on his block. Which of the following words best completes the previous sentence?
Choose one answer.
a. Loathe
b. Gallant
c. Obscure
d. Notorious
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Question 38
What is the antecedent for the word she in the sentence below?

Kendra worked in animation for a movie company; she had always been a talented artist.
Choose one answer.
a. Movie
b. Kendra
c. Artist
d. Animation
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Question 39
What is the effect of the connotation of the underlined phrase used in the sentence below?

Leah always had a taste for the fruit of knowledge.
Choose one answer.
a. Leah was a healthy eater.
b. Leah enjoyed learning.
c. Leah liked eating fruit but not vegetables.
d. Leah was the smartest student in her family.
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Question 40
What is the effect of the connotation of the underlined phrase used in the sentence below?

The computer in the classroom was an old dinosaur, so none of the children were interested in using it.
Choose one answer.
a. The classroom computer was painted to look like a dinosaur.
b. The class had a dinosaur as a class pet.
c. The class computer was very old and outdated.
d. The classroom didn’t have any computers.
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Question 41
What part of speech is the word and as it is used in the sentence below?

Macaroni and cheese is Tio Mario’s favorite meal.
Choose one answer.
a. Preposition
b. Pronoun
c. Interjection
d. Conjunction
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Question 42
What part of speech is the word very in the sentence below?

After camping outdoors for a month, the survivors were very excited to sleep in real beds.
Choose one answer.
a. Adverb
b. Noun
c. Preposition
d. Adjective
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Question 43
What type of figurative language is found in the sentence below?

Bryson’s bedroom was a disaster area where many of his things were lost and never found.
Choose one answer.
a. Simile
b. Analogy
c. Personification
d. Metaphor
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Question 44
What type of figurative language is found in the sentence below?

When it came to their favorite things, the two friends were as similar as two peas in a pod.
Choose one answer.
a. Simile
b. Hyperbole
c. Personification
d. Metaphor
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Question 45
What type of figurative language is used in the sentence below?

The rain roared and cried the whole night long.
Choose one answer.
a. Simile
b. Hyperbole
c. Metaphor
d. Personification
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Question 46
Which of the following is a difference between the two text excerpts provided below?

Text 1:
Pollution
Extinction
Endangered
They’re real
Problems in the world
With which we need to deal.

Text 2:
Excerpt from OtherWords: Michael Brune’s “A More Sustainable Future for Us All”

“More recently, the Club has challenged the Real ID Act. This measure allows the Department of Homeland Security to waive 36 federal laws − including the Endangered Species Act, the Clean Water Act, and the Wilderness Act. That ill-conceived suspension of bedrock environmental laws has been used to construct border walls in the Southwest with little regard to their effect on wildlife and habitats nor their cost in human lives.”
Choose one answer.
a. Genre; text 1 is a poem, and text 2 is part of a nonfiction argumentative essay
b. Genre; text 1 is fantasy, and text 2 is part of a nonfiction biography
c. Theme; text 1 has no theme, and text 2 is about helping others
d. There are no differences.
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Question 47
Which of the following is a similarity between the two text excerpts provided below?

Text 1:
Pollution
Extinction
Endangered
They’re real
Problems in the world
With which we need to deal.

Text 2:
Excerpt from OtherWords: Michael Brune’s “A More Sustainable Future for Us All”

“More recently, the Club has challenged the Real ID Act. This measure allows the Department of Homeland Security to waive 36 federal laws − including the Endangered Species Act, the Clean Water Act, and the Wilderness Act. That ill-conceived suspension of bedrock environmental laws has been used to construct border walls in the Southwest with little regard to their effect on wildlife and habitats nor their cost in human lives.”
Choose one answer.
a. Genre; both are nonfiction argumentative essays
b. Author; both were written by the same person
c. Use of figurative language; both include many similes and metaphors
d. Theme; both tackle the importance of solving environmental problems
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Question 48
In words such as population and popular, the root word pop has what meaning?
Choose one answer.
a. Large
b. Numbers
c. Important
d. People
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Question 49
Fill in the blank. The author’s purpose in writing a research paper is to _______.
Choose one answer.
a. persuade readers to take his or her side on the topic
b. present information on a topic in an unbiased manner
c. argue a point and provide evidence to support the argument
d. entertain readers as they enjoy reading the text
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Question 50
If summarizing a nonfiction text about a historical figure that was written in order from birth to death, which of the following strategies makes the most sense for writing your summary?
Choose one answer.
a. Summarize the text by comparing and contrasting the person’s childhood with his or her adulthood.
b. Summarize the major challenges and issues discussed using the problem/solution text structure.
c. Summarize every life event mentioned in the text in sequential order as in the text.
d. Summarize only the key life events in sequential order as presented in the text.
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Question 51
When comparing two characters from different stories, which of the following is NOT a significant similarity or difference for analysis?
Choose one answer.
a. The characters’ favorite foods and hobbies
b. The manner in which the characters respond to conflict in plot
c. Personality traits of the main characters
d. The characters’ personal weaknesses
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Question 52
When selecting a topic for a research paper, which of the following is NOT a helpful strategy for ensuring that your topic is a proper fit for your research?
Choose one answer.
a. Freewriting about what interests you or what you want to learn more about
b. Revision of freewriting to better organize your thoughts
c. Conducting some background reading about a topic
d. Checking to see if there are a variety of resources available on the topic
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Question 53
Which of the following does NOT support the importance of using multiple resources to collect information on a topic?
Choose one answer.
a. Resources can become outdated and be replaced by new information, so it is important to use multiple resources to verify that information is correct.
b. Different authors may have different opinions or viewpoints, so it is important to collect information from various sources to ensure that research is not biased.
c. Some resources may look more interesting and colorful than others.
d. Not every resource is credible, so it is important to gather information from many sources in case a particular resource isn’t accurate.
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Question 54
Which of the following is NOT a suggested revision strategy?
Choose one answer.
a. Enlist as many people as you can to read and respond to your draft.
b. Read your writing aloud, even if you are the only one listening, to hear how it flows.
c. Run spell-check software on your draft to be sure all misspelled words are corrected.
d. After writing a draft, take some time to cool off and do something else for a while so that you can revise your paper with fresh eyes.
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Question 55
Which of the following questions does NOT need to be considered during the revision step of writing a research paper?
Choose one answer.
a. Did I punctuate the quotes cited in my paper correctly?
b. Do my paragraphs include strong topic and concluding sentences?
c. Are my sentences complete, accurate, and detailed?
d. Did I include plenty of evidence and details to give readers enough information?
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Question 56
Which of the following statements does NOT accurately describe how to summarize a source?
Choose one answer.
a. A summary should be written in your own words, not copied word for word from a source.
b. The summary should be shorter in length than the original source.
c. A summary should only include main points and necessary information.
d. Copying word-for-word from a source is important so that all key details are included.
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Question 57
Which of the following statements related to creating a bibliography is FALSE?
Choose one answer.
a. If you include a bibliography at the end of a paper, you won’t be plagiarizing if you copy things directly from a text since you list sources at the end.
b. The style of bibliography discussed, taught, and used in this course is called MLA style.
c. A bibliography is a list of sources used in research and can include books, articles, interviews, and online sources.
d. A bibliography is also sometimes called a “Works Cited” or “References” page.
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Question 58
Which of the following subtitles would NOT be appropriate to include in a research paper about the life of Abraham Lincoln, the 16th president of the United States of America?
Choose one answer.
a. Early Life
b. Presidency
c. Other Famous Abes
d. Death by Assassination
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Question 59
Which of the following would be the least reliable method of conducting research about the Holocaust?
Choose one answer.
a. Interviewing a Holocaust survivor
b. Reading diaries of people who experienced life in concentration camps
c. Reading a historical fiction novel set in the time period of the Holocaust
d. Visiting the National Holocaust Museum in Washington, D. C.
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Question 60
Which of the following would be the most credible account of the Battle of Lexington?
Choose one answer.
a. A poem written in honor of the 100th anniversary of the battle by someone who was born 37 years after the battle occurred
b. A diary entry written by a soldier who heard about the battle from his brother
c. A diary entry written by the wife of a soldier who was killed in the battle
d. A court record reporting the events as recounted by 34 different soldiers who swore on their word to justices of the peace
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Question 61
Which of the following would be the most credible source for gathering information about the dwarf planet Pluto?
Choose one answer.
a. A younger sibling’s science project about Pluto
b. A science textbook with a chapter about the solar system published in 1993
c. An online forum called “Pluto People”
d. A nonfiction book written by NASA scientists called Why Pluto is No Longer a Planet
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Question 62
Which of the following would be the most credible source for finding the answer to this question: How many people live in Boston, Massachusetts?
Choose one answer.
a. Observing the number of people riding the subway on a weekday
b. Interviewing a lifelong Boston resident
c. Looking in a Boston telephone book
d. Researching the United States Census Bureau’s population data
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Question 63
Which sentence fails to use at least one transition to promote a smooth connection between thoughts and ideas?
Choose one answer.
a. Although she had never gone on a trip alone before, Samantha was excited for her journey.
b. The sandcastle was intricately designed; it had turrets, a moat, and a drawbridge.
c. Yesterday, we traveled to Virginia because we were visiting family who live there.
d. Nadia is a health food nut; for example, her favorite food is quinoa, and she snacks on edamame.
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Question 64
When comparing multiple texts, which of the following is NOT an example of a significant difference or similarity worth analyzing?
Choose one answer.
a. The perspectives from which the texts are written
b. The names of main characters
c. The genres of the texts
d. The publication dates of the texts
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Question 65
Generally speaking, a persuasive or argumentative essay should be organized using which structure?
Choose one answer.
a. Hook, evidence, and conclusion
b. Introduction paragraph (introduce issue), body paragraphs (with support + evidence + quotes), and concluding paragraph
c. Introduction paragraph (with support + evidence + quotes), body paragraphs (introduce issue), and concluding paragraph
d. Compare/contrast and cause/effect text structures
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Question 66
In a persuasive essay, a claim is made that healthier eating may result if laws were passed to support organic and local food production. Which of the following statements supports this argument?
Choose one answer.
a. Being open about the sources of food sold in stores could have a damaging effect on the economy, as people may not buy as much food at grocery stores.
b. In Montana, a number of laws have been passed that provide support for organically certified farmers and tax incentives for customers who choose to buy food grown locally.
c. Many citizens believe that government should stay out of the food business completely.
d. Lobbyists influence the decisions of lawmakers throughout the country.
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Question 67
In a persuasive essay, a claim is made that states are adopting laws (known as “ag-gag laws”) that keep consumers uninformed about where the food they buy in stores comes from. Which of the following statements does not support this claim?
Choose one answer.
a. These laws criminalize people and organizations that expose animal welfare abuses in places where food is produced.
b. Many people are choosing to shop locally at farmers’ markets because of the increased focus and education of the public regarding organic food.
c. Ag-gag laws are currently passed or pending in 29 US states.
d. Millions of lobbyist dollars are poured into passage of ag-gag bills in state Congresses.
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Question 68
Of the options below, which is a free online resource for creating multimedia presentations?
Choose one answer.
a. Prezi
b. YouTube
c. iTunesU
d. Minecraft
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Question 69
Of the options below, which is NOT an effective type of hook to use in argumentative essay writing?
Choose one answer.
a. Humor
b. A question
c. Description of the story’s setting
d. Sweeping claim
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Question 70
What is the author’s main purpose in writing a persuasive essay?
Choose one answer.
a. To explain or clarify a topic by providing significant details and examples
b. To make an effective argument by supporting an opinion with evidence
c. To cite a variety of credible sources from which information was gathered
d. To write with strong voice and word choice
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Question 71
Which graphic organizer would be most helpful to use in the prewriting stage if you have to write an essay in which you must compare two sides of an argument?
Choose one answer.
a. Timeline
b. Web
c. Venn diagram
d. Flow chart
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Question 72
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of sharing your writing and getting feedback about it from others in person or via online discussion forums?
Choose one answer.
a. If shared, your writing could inspire others, promote a cause, or bring joy to readers.
b. Other people may have new ideas that could make your writing even better.
c. A fresh set of eyes reviewing your writing may catch mistakes you overlooked.
d. People might tell you to edit or rewrite something, resulting in grammatical errors.
.
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Question 73
Which of the following is NOT an appropriate method for including the thesis statement in an argumentative essay?
Choose one answer.
a. Lead the introductory paragraph with the thesis statement.
b. Introduce it in the body paragraphs that follow the introductory paragraph.
c. Make the thesis one sentence, or break it up throughout the introductory paragraph.
d. Lead up to the thesis and make it the final sentence of the introductory paragraph.
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Question 74
Which of the following is TRUE regarding the organization of a bibliography?
Choose one answer.
a. It should be organized alphabetically by title of the resource.
b. It should be organized in chronological order according to publication date.
c. It should be organized alphabetically according to the author’s first name.
d. It should be organized alphabetically according to the author’s last name.
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Question 75
Which of the following questions should NOT be considered during the editing step of argumentative paper writing?
Choose one answer.
a. Did I correctly punctuate the quotes cited in my paper?
b. Did I use the spell-check function to ensure accurate spelling in my paper?
c. Have I accurately capitalized all proper nouns?
d. Do I include plenty of evidence and details to give readers enough information?
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Question 76
Which of the following statements about the introductory paragraph in an argumentative essay is FALSE?
Choose one answer.
a. It should detail all pieces of evidence and quotes that will back up the argument.
b. It should immediately engage and interest readers.
c. It should reveal the central issue or topic.
d. It should provide a basis for understanding what the rest of the essay will be about.
.
.
Question 77
Which piece of evidence fails to provide support for the claim below?

“The benefits of pet ownership far outweigh the potential costs, both financially and figuratively speaking.”
Choose one answer.
a. Twenty-five years of research indicates that living with pets provides certain health benefits including lowered blood pressure, lessened anxiety levels, and boosts in immunity.
b. Research has found that kids growing up in a home with “furred animals” such as pet cats or dogs, or on a farm where they’re exposed to large animals, will have a lower risk of allergies and asthma.
c. According to research from the Mayo Clinic, male pet owners have less sign of heart disease − lower triglyceride and cholesterol levels − than those without pets.
d. Data from Bankrate indicates that the average yearly expense for having a pet dog is between $700−$1,000.
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Question 78
Which piece of evidence provides support for the claim below?

“Jamaica is a great vacation destination year round, but winter is without a doubt the best time to go.”
Choose one answer.
a. Temperatures are most comfortable in December and January, and the world-famous Winter Fest in Jamaica’s capital city runs from mid-November through the New Year.
b. Flights are often cheaper for Jamaican travel during the summer months.
c. Climbing the gorgeous Jamaican waterfalls can often be too treacherous during the winter.
d. Summer temperatures can soar to 110 degrees or higher on a regular basis.
.
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Question 79
Which piece of evidence provides support for the claim below?

“Harry Potter is a book series that may be scary or inappropriate for children who are under 10 years of age.”
Choose one answer.
a. Children of all ages love this book series, which appeals equally to boys and girls.
b. This series is one of the best selling and most popular series of all time.
c. There are many scenes with graphic violence; some characters are killed in the plot.
d. I thought it was good, but it was pretty scary at times.
.
.
Question 80
Which piece of evidence provides support for the claim below?

“It has been estimated that smoking tobacco products is responsible for close to 90 percent of lung cancer cases.”
Choose one answer.
a. Over half of people with lung cancer die within one year of being diagnosed.
b. Each year more men are diagnosed with lung cancer, but more women are living with the disease.
c. The number of deaths due to lung cancer has increased approximately 4.3% between 1999 and 2008, from 152,156 to 158,656.
d. Compared to people who have never smoked, men who smoke are 23 times more likely to develop lung cancer. Women are 13 times more likely.
.
.