1
What is an intensive property?
Choose one answer.
a. A house
b. A physical property of a system that is independent of the system size and mass
c. An extensive property
d. A product of two extensive properties
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Question 2
What is a BTU?
Choose one answer.
a. A traditional unit of energy equal to 1055 J
b. A traditional unit of energy equal to 1055 N
c. A unit of energy that stand for British Transition Unit
d. A unit of energy that stands for British Thermal Union
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Question 3
Which of the following statements about a closed system is true?
Choose one answer.
a. In a closed system, no mass may be transferred in or out of the system boundaries.
b. In a closed system, no energy may be transferred in or out of the system boundaries.
c. In a closed system, both mass and energy cannot be transferred in or out of the system boundaries.
d. In a closed system, no work may be transferred in or out of the system boundaries.
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Question 4
What is an extensive property?
Choose one answer.
a. A specific property
b. A physical property of a system that depends on the system size and mass
c. An intensive property
d. A product of two intensive properties
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Question 5
On a day when the temperature is 70°F, what is the temperature in degrees Kelvin?
Choose one answer.
a. 203°K
b. 294°K
c. 270°K
d. 343°K
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Question 6
The boiling temperature of a substance is 500°F, what is the temperature in degrees Kelvin?
Choose one answer.
a. 303°K
b. 260°K
c. 533°K
d. 500°K
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Question 7
What is a thermodynamic cycle?
Choose one answer.
a. A series of identical thermodynamic processes
b. A thermodynamic process
c. A system in equilibrium
d. A series of thermodynamic processes that return to the first state of the first process
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Question 8
If two systems are at thermal equilibrium, which of the following properties of these systems are the same?
Choose one answer.
a. Internal energy
b. Temperature
c. Heat capacity
d. Entropy
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Question 9
If the units of a are inch/lb (mass) and the units of b are kg2/m2, what are the units of a.b?
Choose one answer.
a. kg/m
b. inch/lb
c. kg
d. m
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Question 10
Which of the following is NOT an equation of state?
Choose one answer.
a. Boyle's law
b. Ideal gas law
c. Newton's second law
d. f(P,V,T) = 0
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Question 11
A rigid vessel is maintained at 10 MPa and 300°C. It also contains 800 g of steam. What is the volume of the vessel?
Choose one answer.
a. 1.5 m3
b. 1.1 m3
c. 0.1 m3
d. 1.9 m3
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Question 12
A system contains water at 4 MPa and 300°C. What is the phase of this water?
Choose one answer.
a. Vapor
b. Liquid-vapor mixture
c. Liquid
d. Solid
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Question 13
A system contains water at 4 MPa and 200°C. What is the phase of this water?
Choose one answer.
a. Vapor
b. Liquid-vapor mixture
c. Liquid
d. Solid
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Question 14
What is the mass flow rate of a water-steam at 1 MPa and 300°C following through a 5 cm diameter pipe with an average velocity of 20 m/s?
Choose one answer.
a. 0.52 kg/s
b. 0.152 kg/s
c. 0.258 kg/s
d. 1.65 kg/s
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Question 15
What is the boiling temperature of water at 4 MPa? (Hint: Use water-steam phase diagram shown here.)

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Choose one answer.
a. 280°C
b. 100°C
c. 300°C
d. 250°C
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Question 16
A rigid vessel contains 7 kg of an ideal gas at 5 atm. A valve is opened, and half of the mass of the gas escapes. If the final pressure in the tank is 1.5 atm and the final temperature in the tank is -91°C, what is the initial temperature of the gas?
Choose one answer.
a. 300°C
b. 30°K
c. 30°C
d. 300°K
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Question 17
A rigid vessel contains water vapor mixture in equilibrium at a pressure of 4.76 MPa. What is the temperature of the system?
Choose one answer.
a. 150°C
b. 200°K
c. 202°C
d. 100°K
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Question 18
In a system, a water vapor mixture is at equilibrium at 200°C. What is the pressure of the system?
Choose one answer.
a. 3.25 MPa
b. 4.76 MPa
c. 1.76 bar
d. 15 atm
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Question 19
A vessel contains an ideal gas at temperature T. What is the temperature of the gas if its volume is doubled and its pressure remains the same?
Choose one answer.
a. 2 T
b. 1.5 T
c. 0.6 T
d. 0.5 T
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Question 20
What are temperature and pressure of water at the triple point?
Choose one answer.
a. 100°C and 1 atm
b. 0°K and 611 Pa
c. 273°K and 1 MPa
d. 273°K and 611 Pa
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Question 21
What is an adiabatic process?
Choose one answer.
a. A process in which the system is perfectly insulated and heat transfer is zero
b. A process in which the temperature stays constant
c. A process in which the pressure stays constant
d. A process in which the volume of the system stays constant
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Question 22
How much work is required to accelerate a mass of 10 kg from 10 km/hr to 100 km/hr?
Choose one answer.
a. 29.5 kJ
b. 19.5 kJ
c. 49.5 kJ
d. 89.5 kJ
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Question 23
Which of the following is NOT a type of energy?
Choose one answer.
a. Heat
b. Work
c. Potential energy
d. Entropy
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Question 24
What is heat conduction?
Choose one answer.
a. The transfer of thermal energy between regions of matter due to a temperature gradient
b. The transfer of energy due to bulk movement of liquids
c. The transfer of electrical energy from one object to another
d. The transfer of kinetic energy due to collision
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Question 25
What are three major modes of heat transfer?
Choose one answer.
a. Radiation, friction, and convection
b. Convection, isobaric, and radiation
c. Conduction, isothermal, and isentropic
d. Conduction, convection, and radiation
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Question 26
What temperature change on the Celsius scale is equivalent to a 50 degree change on the Kelvin scale?
Choose one answer.
a. 70°C
b. 50°C
c. 30°C
d. 20°C
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Question 27
A 0.05 kg of metal at 446 K is dropped into a water tank that contains 0.94 lbs water initially at 23°C. What is the final temperature of the mixed system, if the specific heat of the metal is 574 J/kg C and the specific heat of water is 4186 J/kg C?
Choose one answer.
a. 35.9°C
b. 75.2°C
c. 125.6°C
d. 25.4°C
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Question 28
A 200-m3 rigid vessel contains a saturated liquid-vapor mixture with a vapor quality of 75%. The temperature of the vessel is maintained at 393°K. What is the total mass of the liquid-vapor mixture inside the vessel?
Choose one answer.
a. 219 kg
b. 299 kg
c. 179 kg
d. 359 kg
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Question 29
A rigid vessel contains 5 m3 of nitrogen (N2) at 252 °K and 10 MPa. What is the mass of nitrogen? (Hint: Use data from the compressibility chart for nitrogen shown here.)

Terms of Use: The image below is licensed under the terms of the GNU Free Documentation License, Version 1.2 or any later version published by the Free Software Foundation; with no Invariant Sections, no Front-Cover Texts, and no Back-Cover Texts. It is also licensed under the Creative Commons Attribution-Share Alike 3.0 Unported license. It is attributed to Wikimedia user Aushulz. The original version can be found here.

Choose one answer.
a. 1223 kg
b. 142 kg
c. 697 kg
d. 47 kg
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Question 30
According to the first law of thermodynamics, what cannot be created or destroyed?
Choose one answer.
a. Exergy
b. Entropy
c. Energy
d. Enthalpy
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Question 31
In an adiabatic turbine, water vapor at 573°K, 20 bar is expanded to 0.3 bar. What is the amount of work produced per kg vapor?
Choose one answer.
a. 256 kJ
b. 22 kJ
c. 742 kJ
d. 1920 kJ
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Question 32
An ideal gas initially at -21°C and 0.334 bar is compressed isothermally to 1.59 bar. Calculate the amount of work done by two moles of gas in this process.
Choose one answer.
a. -2.31 kJ
b. 4.52 kJ
c. -6.53 kJ
d. -3.55 kJ
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Question 33
An ideal gas has a molecular weight of 10 kg/k-mole and a specific internal energy of 300 kJ/kg, when the temperature is 373°K. What is the specific enthalpy of this gas?
Choose one answer.
a. 610 kJ/kg
b. 510 kJ/kg
c. 710 kJ/kg
d. 210 kJ/kg
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Question 34
Which of the following statements about heat is true?
Choose one answer.
a. Heat conduction happens only on solid materials.
b. Heat convection is independent of fluid velocity.
c. Heat transfer due to radiation increases linearly with temperature.
d. None of the above
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Question 35
Which of the following statements about the first law of thermodynamics is false?
Choose one answer.
a. The first law of thermodynamics is an expression of the principle of conservation of energy.
b. The first law of thermodynamics states that energy can be transformed but cannot be created nor destroyed.
c. The internal energy of an isolated system is not constant.
d. Changes in internal energy (U) are due to a combination of heat (Q) added to the system and work done by the system (W).
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Question 36
An ideal gas is initially at 60°C and 4 kPa. It then undergoes isobaric expansion, which increases the volume of the gas from 1.6 m3 to 4 m3. What is the amount of work done by the gas in this process?
Choose one answer.
a. 3.6 kJ
b. 9.6 kJ
c. 6.4 kJ
d. 5.1 kJ
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Question 37
Which of the following statements is ALWAYS true for an isothermal process of an ideal gas?
Choose one answer.
a. The temperature of the system increases.
b. The temperature of the system decreases.
c. The internal energy of the system stays constant.
d. No energy is exchanged between the system and the surrounding.
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Question 38
Which of the following statements is the first law of thermodynamics?
Choose one answer.
a. For any spontaneous process, the entropy of the universe increases.
b. Entropy cannot be created or destroyed.
c. Energy cannot be created or destroyed.
d. Energy = internal energy + kinetic energy + potential energy.
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Question 39
Which of the following statements about heat transfer is false?
Choose one answer.
a. Heat is always transferred from a hot object to a colder object.
b. Heat transfer occurs when the temperature of a system is different from the temperature of its surroundings.
c. The three major modes of heat transfer are conduction, convection, and radiation.
d. Internal energy of a system can only be changed due to heat transfer.
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Question 40
Which of the following statements about Carnot power cycle is false?
Choose one answer.
a. It is not possible to build Carnot power cycle in practice.
b. A Carnot power cycle consists of 2 isentropic processes and 2 isothermal processes.
c. No engine operating between two heat reservoirs can be more efficient than a Carnot engine operating between those same reservoirs.
d. The thermal efficiency of a Rankine cycle can be made to be equal to that of a Carnot power cycle operating between the same cold and hot reservoirs.
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Question 41
What is the thermal efficiency of a Carnot cycle, whose temperatures of the cold and hot reservoirs are 100°C and 500°C, respectively?
Choose one answer.
a. 0.13
b. 0.52
c. 0.22
d. 0.76
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Question 42
Which of the following statements about exergy is true?
Choose one answer.
a. Exergy is the minimum useful work possible during a process that brings the system into equilibrium with a heat reservoir.
b. Exergy is always destroyed in a process involving a temperature change.
c. Exergy is equivalent to entropy.
d. Exergy never reaches zero even after the system and surroundings reach equilibrium.
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Question 43
Which of the following statements is the second law of thermodynamics?
Choose one answer.
a. For any spontaneous process, the entropy of the universe increases.
b. Entropy cannot be created or destroyed.
c. Energy cannot be created or destroyed.
d. Energy = internal energy + kinetic energy + potential energy.
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Question 44
Which of the following processes are used to form a Carnot cycle?
Choose one answer.
a. Two reversible isothermal processes and two adiabatic processes
b. Two irreversible isothermal processes and two adiabatic processes
c. Two isobaric processes and two adiabatic processes
d. Two reversible isentropic processes and two adiabatic processes
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Question 45
Heat is added to a closed system to move the system from state 1 (entropy s1, temperature T1) to state 2 (entropy s2, temperature T2). What is the total amount of heat added to the system in this process if T1 = T2 = T?
Choose one answer.
a. T(s1 + s2)/2
b. T (s2 - s1)
c. T (s1 - s2)
d. T s1/s2
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Question 46
Which of the following statements about entropy is false?
Choose one answer.
a. Entropy expresses the degree of disorder in a system.
b. Entropy of an isolated system never decreases.
c. Entropy has the dimension of energy divided by temperature and a unit of joules per kelvin (J/K).
d. Entropy measures the energy available for useful work in a thermodynamic process.
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Question 47
What is the thermodynamic efficiency of a heat engine that rejects heat at a rate of 20 MW when heat is supplied to it at a rate of 80 MW?
Choose one answer.
a. 75%
b. 40%
c. 65%
d. 50%
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Question 48
Which of the following is the thermodynamic quantity that measures the degree of disorder in a system?
Choose one answer.
a. Energy
b. Entropy
c. Work
d. Exergy
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Question 49
What is the maximum theoretical efficiency for a heat engine operating between 373°K and 773°K?
Choose one answer.
a. 0.123
b. 0.232
c. 0.517
d. 0.721
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Question 50
Consider a Carnot vapor power cycle using water as the working fluid. Saturated liquid enters the boiler at a pressure of 8 MPa, and saturated vapor enters the turbine. The pressure of the condenser pressure is 8 kPa. What is the thermal efficiency of this power cycle?
Choose one answer.
a. 75%
b. 35%
c. 45%
d. 25%
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Question 51
Which of the following processes is NOT a part of a four-stroke Otto power cycle?
Choose one answer.
a. Isobaric
b. Isothermal
c. Adiabatic expansion
d. Isochoric
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Question 52
Consider an air-standard Otto cycle, which has a compression ratio of 6. Its temperature and pressure at the beginning of the compression process are 60.33°F and 14.2 lbf/in2, respectively. The heat addition per unit mass of air is 633 kJ. Calculate the thermal efficiency of the cycle.
Choose one answer.
a. 76%
b. 46%
c. 5%
d. 29%
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Question 53
What is the thermal efficiency of a Sterling engine which uses an energy source whose temperature is 577°C and an energy sink whose temperature is 57°C?
Choose one answer.
a. 0.31
b. 0.71
c. 0.41
d. 0.61
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Question 54
What is the power cycle that consists of 2 adiabatic processes and 2 isobaric processes?
Choose one answer.
a. Carnot
b. Brayton
c. Diesel
d. Otto
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Question 55
What is the power cycle that consists of 2 adiabatic processes and 2 isochoric processes?
Choose one answer.
a. Carnot
b. Brayton
c. Diesel
d. Otto
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Question 56
Which of the following power cycles used for internal combustion consists of 2 adiabatic processes, 1 isochoric process, and 1 isobaric process?
Choose one answer.
a. Rankine
b. Lenoir
c. Diesel
d. Otto
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Question 57
What is the thermal efficiency of a Rankine cycle if the temperatures of its cold and hot reservoirs are 46°F and 80°F, respectively?
Choose one answer.
a. 6.3%
b. 17.2%
c. 15.3%
d. 20.2%
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Question 58
What is the maximum coefficient of performance of a heat pump, whose temperatures of hot and cold reservoirs are 327°C and 27°C, respectively?
Choose one answer.
a. 1
b. 0.5
c. 2
d. 4
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Question 59
An isobaric process of changes temperature of air from T1 = 100°K to T2 = 200°K. If the specific heat of air is 1 kJ/kg-K, what is the change in specific entropy change of the process?
Choose one answer.
a. 1.693 kJ/kg-K
b. 2.693 kJ/kg-K
c. 3.693 kJ/kg-K
d. 0.693 kJ/kg-K
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Question 60
A heat engine outputs 300 kW. It receives heat at a rate of 500 kW. The hot and cold temperatures are 2000 K and 300 K, respectively. Calculate the second-law efficiency of the heat engine.
Choose one answer.
a. 30%
b. 50%
c. 71%
d. 60%
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Question 61
Calculate the work required to compress 1.5 cubic meter of air initially at room condition (22 °C and 1.02 bar) to 6 bar.
Choose one answer.
a. 2.0 MJ
b. 1.5 MJ
c. 25.3 MJ
d. 2.8 MJ
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Question 62
Calculate quality of steam at 8 bar and entropy 6.55 kJ/kg.
Choose one answer.
a. 2.4%
b. 25%
c. 3.8%
d. 5.2%
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Question 63
1 kg of dry steam is heated at a constant pressure at 2 bar until its volume is 1.3 m3. Calculate the amount of heat supplied to the process.
Choose one answer.
a. 3.5 kJ
b. 20 kJ
c. 38 kJ
d. 336 kJ
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Question 64
A refrigerator is kept in a room with temperature of 95°F. Rate of heat leakage from refrigerator is 1 kW. What is the minimum power needed to keep the temperature of the refrigerator at 10.4 °F?
Choose one answer.
a. 1.36 kW
b. 2.25 kW
c. 3.10 kW
d. 0.53 kW
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Question 65
Use van der Waal equation to estimate the volume of 1 kg CO2 at 373 K.
Choose one answer.
a. 0.5 m3
b. 2 m3
c. 1 m3
d. 0.1 m3
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Question 66
Estimate the Rankine efficiency of a steam power cycle. Dry and saturated steam is supplied at 15 bar. The pressure of the condenser is 0.4 bar.
Choose one answer.
a. 24%
b. 5%
c. 72%
d. 10%
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Question 67
What is the change in entropy when 1 kmol gas at 10 bar and 300 K expands to a pressure at 1 bar? You can assume that the process is isothermal.
Choose one answer.
a. 394 kJ/kmol K
b. 19 kJ/kmol K
c. 1.5 kJ/kmol K
d. 80 kJ/kmol K
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Question 68
Calculate work done when 1 kmol of an ideal gas expanded isothermally at 600 K from 5 bar to 4 bar .
Choose one answer.
a. 1113 kJ
b. 2312 kJ
c. 52 kJ
d. 4905 kJ
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Question 69
Consider a constant volume Otto cycle of air (γ = 1.4). The temperature of air at the beginning of the compression is 40°C and the maximum temperature is 2000°C. The compression ratio is 7. Estimate roughly work done per kg air.
Choose one answer.
a. 6 kJ
b. 600 kJ
c. 0.6 kJ
d. 6000 kJ
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