According to the Constitutional principle of "separation of powers," which branch is responsible for drafting laws in the American government?

Choose one answer.

	a. The judicial branch
	b. The executive branch
	c. The legal branch
	d. The legislative branch
	e. The bureaucratic branch

Question 2

According to the Student Study Guide, which of the following is defined as "the legitimate use of force to control human behavior within specified geographic boundaries"?

Choose one answer.

	a. Democracy
	b. Government
	c. Representative republicanism
	d. Bureaucracy
	e. Monarchy

Question 3

Complete the following statement. All of the following principles are protected under the Bill of Rights, EXCEPT:

Choose one answer.

	a. Separation of church and state
	b. Freedom of the press
	c. Trial by jury of one's peers
	d. The right to vote for all citizens
	e. The right to bear arms

Question 4

Fill in the blank. The phrase, "We the people," in the preamble of the Constitution illustrates the Constitutional principle of ___________________.

Choose one answer.

	a. Popular sovereignty
	b. Direct election of senators
	c. Democratic republicanism
	d. Confederacy
	e. Socialism

Question 5

In order to strike a balance between states' rights and federal authority, the government outlined which of the following under the Constitution?

Choose one answer.

	a. Federalism, a system of shared powers between the states and the federal government
	b. Confederalism, a system where power was shared by a loose alliance between the states
	c. Monarchism, a system where absolute power was given to the king
	d. Socialism, a system where all the power was in the hands of individuals
	e. None of the above

Question 6

James Madison's "Federalist 10" articulated the belief of the founding fathers that the Constitution would do which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. Lead to a tyranny of the majority
	b. Promote the growth of political parties
	c. Control the effects of factions
	d. Allow the states to maintain their preeminence
	e. Lead to a tyranny of the minority

Question 7

The concept of "life, liberty, and the pursuit of happiness," in Thomas Jefferson's Declaration of Independence, can be traced back to whose writings?

Choose one answer.

	a. Aristotle
	b. Montesquieu
	c. Locke
	d. Rousseau
	e. Hobbes

Question 8

The founding fathers would argue for which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. The fundamental purpose of government is to establish universal suffrage.
	b. The fundamental purpose of government is to equalize economic opportunities for all citizens.
	c. The fundamental purpose of government is to provide for the defense of the nation.
	d. The fundamental purpose of government is to create a system of public goods and support the less fortunate.
	e. The fundamental purpose of government is to protect people's natural rights of life, liberty, and property.

Question 9

The Great Compromise appeased states with a large population, like Virginia, and states with a small population, like New Jersey, by doing which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. Establishing the Articles of Confederation
	b. Creating a bicameral legislature, where the number of seats in the lower house was determined by population, and the number of seats in the upper house was equal among all states
	c. Determining that the New Jersey plan was the best fit for the national government and provided all states equal number of representatives in Congress
	d. Continuing the practice of states' rights and limiting the amount of power given to the national legislature
	e. Determining that 3/5 of a state's slave population would be counted in determining representation

Question 10

The presence of interest groups is a fundamental aspect of which type of democracy?

Choose one answer.

	a. Pluralist democracy
	b. Elitist democracy
	c. Majoritarian democracy
	d. Republican democracy
	e. Ancient democracy

Question 11

The Reagan Administration and "devolution" in the 1980s and 1990s is best associated with which type of federalism?

Choose one answer.

	a. Dual federalism
	b. Cooperative federalism
	c. Competitive federalism
	d. Marble cake federalism
	e. "New" federalism

Question 12

Throughout history, the purpose of government has been to do which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. To maintain order, including preserving life and protecting property
	b. To provide public goods and services
	c. To promote equality thought society
	d. To inflict violence on other nation states
	e. A, B, and C

Question 13

What was the underlying political philosophy of the Articles of Confederation?

Choose one answer.

	a. That the king should remain in power
	b. That the United States should be a monarchy
	c. That the states should have more power than the central government
	d. That the executive branch should hold more power than the legislative branch
	e. That states with a larger population should have more of a say in national politics

Question 14

Which of the following best defines political equality?

Choose one answer.

	a. Equality in the political decision-making process: one vote per person, all votes counted equally
	b. Equality of wealth and material possessions throughout society
	c. Equality of success in all ventures in life
	d. Equality of social status and class; social class mobility, regardless of the class you are born into
	e. Equality of all political branches to have an impact on society

Question 15

Which of the following best defines political ideology?

Choose one answer.

	a. One's self-interest
	b. A set of beliefs that change from time to time about the scope and purpose of government
	c. A consistent set of values about the proper role and scope of government
	d. The ability to decide about the dilemma between freedom and order
	e. The political spectrum of beliefs that differ due to the constantly changing political world

Question 16

Which of the following expresses the general sentiments of Anti-federalists regarding the Constitution?

Choose one answer.

	a. Anti-federalists insisted in a stronger central government.
	b. Anti-federalists feared that foreign governments would try to overpower the new nation.
	c. Anti-federalists feared that the states would maintain their dominance under the new government.
	d. Anti-federalists believed that a strong chief executive was necessary.
	e. Anti-federalists feared the power of a strong central government and wanted to see a bill of rights added to guarantee the protection of individual rights.

Question 17

Which of the following is a clear example of the Constitutional principle of "checks and balances"?

Choose one answer.

	a. The President's ability to veto a bill passed by Congress
	b. The creation of Congressional committees and subcommittees
	c. The federal government providing grants to states to help build new schools
	d. The ability of both states and the federal government to tax individuals
	e. The Supreme Court's ability to choose the cases it wants to hear

Question 18

Which of the following political ideologies would support limited government action, unless to protect life, liberty, and property?

Choose one answer.

	a. Socialism
	b. Conservatism
	c. Totalitarianism
	d. Liberalism
	e. Monarchism

Question 19

Which of the following states one way that the United States Constitution differed from the Articles of Confederation?

Choose one answer.

	a. The Constitution created a national government having three branches.
	b. The Constitution provided for the direct election of the president by the voters.
	c. The Constitution made the amendment process more difficult.
	d. The Constitution increased the powers of the states.
	e. The Constitution abolished the federal judiciary system.

Question 20

All of the following are true statements regarding campaign finance in the United States EXCEPT:

Choose one answer.

	a. Soft-money contributions by political committees have been banned.
	b. Restrictions on independent spending by corporations in elections has been ruled unconstitutional.
	c. Advocacy groups can spend unlimited amounts of money in federal elections as long as they do not coordinate with the candidates.
	d. Political action committees can spend unlimited amounts of money in elections on advertising.
	e. Presidential candidates are prohibited from using taxpayer money to finance their campaigns.

Question 21

All of the following are ways in which new media has impacted the relationship between communication and politics EXCEPT:

Choose one answer.

	a. New media is making more information available and accessible.
	b. New media can aim at specialized audiences.
	c. New media has created "citizen journalists."
	d. New media, in the form of the "blogosphere," can hold public officials accountable by amplifying and spreading information.
	e. More people receive their political news from new media than any other type of mass media.

Question 22

All of the following have been social movements in the United States EXCEPT:

Choose one answer.

	a. Abolition
	b. Temperance
	c. Civil rights
	d. Women's rights
	e. Fair trade

Question 23

All of the following represent a true statement about voting behavior in the United States EXCEPT:

Choose one answer.

	a. Young voters are less likely than older citizens to turn out in midterm elections.
	b. Turnout varies significantly across geographic locations.
	c. The higher a person's education level, the less likely they are to vote.
	d. There has been a steady increase in turnout since the 2000 presidential election.
	e. Voter turnout in presidential elections is generally higher than for lower-level contests.

Question 24

Choose the best answer to fill in the blank. Political scientists refer to the "process by which individuals acquire their political beliefs, values, and attitudes" as political ________________.

Choose one answer.

	a. Rhetoric
	b. Ideology
	c. Culture
	d. Socialization
	e. Apathy

Question 25

Choose the best answer to fill in the blank. Political ______ refers to individuals' perceptions about whether or not they can influence the political process.

Choose one answer.

	a. Efficacy
	b. Legitimacy
	c. Indoctrination
	d. Exceptionalism
	e. Tolerance

Question 26

Choose the best answer to fill in the blank. ___________ refers to America's acceptance and celebration of its cultural diversity and heritage.

Choose one answer.

	a. Sub-culturalism
	b. Political tolerance
	c. Ethnicity
	d. Multiculturalism
	e. Egalitarianism

Question 27

Criticisms of the presidential election process include all of the following EXCEPT:

Choose one answer.

	a. Too much attention is paid to early caucuses and primaries.
	b. Money is too big of a factor in the election process.
	c. There is not enough media coverage of the campaign.
	d. Primary voters are not representative of general election voters and therefore should not have as much of an impact in the nomination process.
	e. The presidential campaign season lasts way too long.

Question 28

Fill in the blank. In a "scientific" poll, the portion of the population selected to participate in a survey is called a ________________.

Choose one answer.

	a. Focus group
	b. Sample
	c. Population
	d. Representative population
	e. Public

Question 29

Interest groups play a role in the American political system in all of the following ways, EXCEPT:

Choose one answer.

	a. Recruiting candidates to run for public office.
	b. Bringing media attention to an issue.
	c. Endorsing candidates for public office.
	d. Testifying at congressional hearings.
	e. Providing expert information for elected officials and their staff.

Question 30

Political parties serve all of the following functions in the American political system today EXCEPT:

Choose one answer.

	a. Informing citizens about political issues and proposing alternative government programs.
	b. Coordinating actions of government officials in various branches of government.
	c. Nominating candidates for election to public office.
	d. Deciding which presidential candidate wins the election through the Electoral College.
	e. Requiring people to pay dues if they want to join the party.

Question 31

Which of the following accurately describes what most scholars agree on as the greatest impact that the mass media has on American politics?

Choose one answer.

	a. The ability to set the national agenda
	b. The ability to reveal political scandals to the public
	c. The ability to shape public opinion and political attitudes of the public
	d. The ability to influence electoral outcomes
	e. The ability to serve as an agent of political socialization

Question 32

Which of the following allows voters to directly approve or disapprove a legislative proposal?

Choose one answer.

	a. A recall petition
	b. A blanket primary
	c. An indirect primary
	d. A referendum
	e. A run-off primary

Question 33

Which of the following best defines public opinion?

Choose one answer.

	a. The distribution of opinions and attitudes held by the public
	b. The political ideology of the mass public
	c. The strongly held political beliefs of individuals within government
	d. The perception that pollsters and politicians have about the general public
	e. All of the above

Question 34

Which of the following is a true statement about the history of political parties in the United States?

Choose one answer.

	a. The existence of political parties is mandatory as outlined in the Constitution.
	b. The existence of two parties has always been a part of the American political system.
	c. U.S. election rules support the creation and maintenance of a two-party system.
	d. Democrats and Republicans were the first major political parties in the United States.
	e. The two-party system was in place by 1800.

Question 35

Which of the following is considered to be an important agent of political socialization?

Choose one answer.

	a. Family
	b. Friends
	c. The mass media
	d. Schools
	e. All of the above

Question 36

Which of the following is NOT a major change that has occurred to the party system since FDR's New Deal era?

Choose one answer.

	a. Party loyalty has declined.
	b. Elections have become more candidate-centered rather than party-centered.
	c. National political parties have become more successful and effective in mobilizing voters.
	d. The influence of political parties has diminished.
	e. Party reforms have allowed more average voters to serve as delegates to the national party nominating conventions.

Question 37

Which of the following would be classified as a mode of political participation in the United States?

Choose one answer.

	a. Voting
	b. Making a campaign contribution
	c. Volunteering for a political candidate
	d. Signing a petition
	e. All of the above

Question 38

Which of the following would NOT be considered a core value of American political culture?

Choose one answer.

	a. Egalitarianism
	b. Equality of opportunity
	c. Economic equality
	d. Individualism
	e. Rule of law

Question 39

Which statement best describes how the media generally impacts public opinion in the United States?

Choose one answer.

	a. The media has no measurable impact on public opinion.
	b. The media can greatly alter public opinion about an issue.
	c. The media often shapes political attitudes and voting behaviors.
	d. The media is most likely to influence public opinion among those with the lowest education levels.
	e. Media coverage impacts the issues that the public thinks are most important.

Question 40

According to the Constitution, the structure of the federal court system is to be defined by which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. The Supreme Court
	b. The Congress
	c. The president
	d. The Attorney General
	e. The Chief Justice

Question 41

After both chambers of Congress pass the same version of a bill, the president may take all of the following actions EXCEPT:

Choose one answer.

	a. Sign the bill into law.
	b. Veto it, sending it back to Congress with a veto message explaining reasons for rejecting it.
	c. Let it become law after ten working days by not doing anything.
	d. Not sign it after Congress adjourns, exercising the pocket veto.
	e. Send it directly to the Supreme Court for judicial review.

Question 42

As compared to the House of Representatives, the Senate:

Choose one answer.

	a. Has more rules.
	b. Garners more media attention.
	c. Has less time for debate.
	d. Is less flexible.
	e. Is less prestigious.

Question 43

Choose the best answer to fill in the blank. When one political party controls Congress and a different party controls the White House, there exists _________________.

Choose one answer.

	a. Pluralism
	b. Divided government
	c. Checks and balances
	d. Separation of powers
	e. Partisan politics

Question 44

Fill in the blank. The committee in the House with the most influence in setting the agenda for debate on the floor is the _________________.

Choose one answer.

	a. Ways and Means Committee
	b. Policy Committee
	c. Appropriations Committee
	d. Rules Committee
	e. Speaker's Committee

Question 45

Fill in the blank. The courts generally practice ______________, or a general bias for precedents or existing decisions.

Choose one answer.

	a. Amicus curiae
	b. Judicial review
	c. Stare decisis
	d. Tort reform
	e. Senatorial courtesy

Question 46

Historically, which of the following is true of the president's approval rating?

Choose one answer.

	a. The president's approval rating remains constant throughout his entire tenure in office.
	b. The president's approval rating averages around 50% during his first two years in office, then tends to increase.
	c. The president's approval rating is highest during the first 100 days in office, the "honeymoon" period.
	d. The president's approval rating is lowest during times of war or national crisis.
	e. The president's approval rating is highest toward the end of his presidency.

Question 47

In general, which of the following captures the policy of most recent presidents in regards to the bureaucracy?

Choose one answer.

	a. Support for an increase in bureaucratic power to help implement complex federal programs.
	b. Increasing budgets to help fund new bureaucratic programs
	c. Reorganizing and decreasing the size of the bureaucratic workforce
	d. Requesting the creation of new bureaucratic agencies and regulations
	e. Ending the power of independent regulatory agencies

Question 48

Redistricting (redrawing) of congressional district lines occurs:

Choose one answer.

	a. When there is a significant population shift.
	b. When the state legislature enacts the appropriate provisions.
	c. Every ten years.
	d. After each major presidential election.
	e. Every two years.

Question 49

The existence of an iron triangle relationship results in which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. Policies are made independently without any influence from Congress.
	b. Policies being made often contradict with the preferences of Congressional committees.
	c. Policies are often not made because of a hostile relationship between Congress and the bureaucracy.
	d. Policies are made through a cooperative relationship between an interest group, a bureaucratic agency and Congress.
	e. Policies are often implemented that solely reflect the wishes of the president.

Question 50

What is the main purpose of congressional oversight committees?

Choose one answer.

	a. To draft appropriation legislation
	b. To review government operations, especially within the bureaucracy
	c. To hold impeachment hearings
	d. To write constitutional amendments
	e. To regulate the actions of constituents

Question 51

Which of the following cases set the precedent of judicial review?

Choose one answer.

	a. Dred Scott v. Sanford (1857)
	b. Plessy v. Ferguson (1896)
	c. Marbury v. Madison (1803)
	d. McCullough v. Maryland (1819)
	e. Fletcher v. Peck (1810)

Question 52

Which of the following is a false statement about the United States Senate?

Choose one answer.

	a. The 435 seats of the Senate are allocated based on a state's reported population every ten years when the U.S. conducts the census.
	b. Senators serve six-year terms.
	c. One-third of the Senate is up for re-election every two years.
	d. Representation in the Senate is equal for every state; each state has two senators.
	e. In the Senate, leadership is less centralized than in the House and floor proceedings tend to respect "minority rights" more than "majority rule," as in the House.

Question 53

Which of the following is a true statement about how the judicial nomination process has changed during the end of the 20th century?

Choose one answer.

	a. Personal qualities, such as race, ethnicity, and gender, have become important factors when considering a nominee for the Supreme Court.
	b. Senatorial courtesy has dictated the fate of all potential nominees before they are officially considered.
	c. Supreme Court nominees are much more likely to be loyal partisan supporters of the president than they were in the past.
	d. Potential judges must have extensive litigation experience.
	e. The media have played much less of a role in the nomination process than in the past.

Question 54

Which of the following is a true statement about the Supreme Court?

I. The Supreme Court determines its own docket, based on the "rule of four."
II. The Constitution states that the Supreme Court must have nine justices.
III. The vast majority of cases heard by the Supreme Court are cases of original jurisdiction.
IV. On average, the Supreme Court hears less then one hundred cases per year.

Choose one answer.

	a. I only
	b. II and III only
	c. I and IV only
	d. I, II, and III only
	e. I, II, III, and IV

Question 55

Which of the following is a true statement regarding the media and the Supreme Court?

Choose one answer.

	a. Media coverage of the court's activities is limited.
	b. Most of the court's decisions receive widespread media coverage.
	c. Coverage of the court is often oversimplified.
	d. A and C
	e. Cameras are allowed in the Supreme Court during public sessions.

Question 56

Which of the following is considered a delegated constitutional power of the president?

Choose one answer.

	a. Commander and chief of the armed forces
	b. Head of state
	c. Making appointments of ambassadors
	d. Signing treaties with foreign countries
	e. All of the above

Question 57

Which of the following is false about bureaucratic reform in the United States?

Choose one answer.

	a. The bureaucracy has been reformed relatively little throughout history.
	b. A general trend in recent reforms has been to create a smaller bureaucracy.
	c. The Clinton administration attempted to reform the bureaucracy in the 1990s by implementing the National Performance Review.
	d. When reforming the bureaucracy, the government has found it is much easier to add new bureaucratic programs than end them.
	e. Many recent bureaucratic reforms have included privatization of formerly public duties and the deregulation of industry.

Question 58

Which of the following is NOT a formal or informal source of presidential power?

Choose one answer.

	a. The Constitution
	b. Divine right
	c. Precedents set from past presidents
	d. Presidential access to the media
	e. Public support

Question 59

Which of the following is NOT a power granted to Congress in the Constitution?

Choose one answer.

	a. To make federal judicial appointments
	b. To collect taxes
	c. To declare war
	d. To regulate interstate commerce
	e. To create inferior courts

Question 60

Which of the following is NOT a requirement stated in the Constitution for being president?

Choose one answer.

	a. Being at least 35 years old
	b. Being a member of a political party
	c. Obtaining a majority of the electoral votes in the Electoral College
	d. Being a natural born citizen
	e. Having resided in the United States for at least 14 years

Question 61

Which of the following presides over the House of Representatives?

Choose one answer.

	a. The Speaker of the House
	b. House Minority Leader
	c. The House Majority Whip
	d. The Chairman of the Committee of the Whole
	e. The House Pro Temp

Question 62

Which of the following statements below is true of the legislative process?

Choose one answer.

	a. Revenue bills must originate in the Senate.
	b. Oversight committees resolve differences between legislation passed in the House and Senate.
	c. Filibusters in the Senate are used to stop bills from coming to a floor vote.
	d. Each chamber has the same exact standing committees that mark-up legislation.
	e. All of the above

Question 63

Which of the following statements is true about the presidents' cabinet?

Choose one answer.

	a. Members of the cabinet are the secretaries of fifteen executive departments.
	b. The cabinet is a creation of modern presidents.
	c. The existence of a cabinet is mandated in Article II of the Constitution.
	d. The Vice President is the leader of the Cabinet.
	e. None of the above

Question 64

Which of the following states a major difference between House and Senate procedural operations?

Choose one answer.

	a. The House allows unlimited debate on legislation, whereas the Senate has strict time limitations.
	b. The Senate permits more amendments to bills than does the House.
	c. In the House, the minority party can filibuster a bill and permit it from floor consideration-a procedural option that is not allowed in the Senate.
	d. Senate committees always have an equal number of members from both parties, regardless of minority or majority status.
	e. There are no major procedural differences between the two chambers.

Question 65

Choose the best answer to fill in the blank. ____________ refers to the power of government to take private property for public use.

Choose one answer.

	a. Prior restraint
	b. Eminent domain
	c. Double jeopardy
	d. Selective incorporation
	e. Habeas corpus

Question 66

Fill in the blank. The defeat of the Equal Rights Amendment in 1982 had a devastating impact on the civil rights efforts of ________________.

Choose one answer.

	a. African Americans
	b. Hispanic Americans
	c. Jewish Americans
	d. Women
	e. Homosexuals

Question 67

In the First Amendment, which clause creates "a wall of separation between church and state"?

Choose one answer.

	a. The exclusionary clause
	b. The free-exercise clause
	c. The freedom of religion clause
	d. The establishment clause
	e. The supremacy clause

Question 68

The 14th Amendment does all of the following EXCEPT:

Choose one answer.

	a. Prohibits slavery.
	b. Protects citizens from the abuses of state governments.
	c. Ensures a citizen's right to privacy.
	d. Ensures citizens equal protection under the law.
	e. Guarantees the right to trial by jury.

Question 69

The Brown v. Board of Education decision (1954) did which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. Established the doctrine of "separate but equal."
	b. Determined that de jure segregation was legal.
	c. Determined that the doctrine of "separate but equal" was unconstitutional.
	d. Ended the practice of de facto segregation.
	e. Was supported by the majority of the South.

Question 70

The inability of the government to censor a work before it is published is known as:

Choose one answer.

	a. Pre-emptive censorship.
	b. National security protective status.
	c. Prior restraint.
	d. Writ of certiorari.
	e. Due process.

Question 71

The "Lemon Test" is used to do which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. Determine if the government has violated the "clear and present danger" doctrine
	b. Decide whether or not there is the presence of "symbolic speech"
	c. Determine if the Congress has created a law that is unconstitutional
	d. Decide whether or not the government has unfairly searched without a warrant
	e. Determine if government actions relating to religion are unconstitutional

Question 72

What is the Bill of Rights?

Choose one answer.

	a. The first ten amendments to the Constitution
	b. All of the civil liberties and civil rights found in the Constitution
	c. The first national Constitution in the United States
	d. The First Amendment
	e. Legislation passed by Congress to ensure freedoms

Question 73

Which of the following best explains the underlying goal of Affirmative Action?

Choose one answer.

	a. To give opportunity to previously oppressed minority groups and women to overcome the effects of past discrimination
	b. To overcome the effects of ongoing discrimination within society
	c. To ensure not only equal opportunity but also equal outcome for all
	d. To punish white society for ills of the past
	e. All of the above

Question 74

Which of the following is NOT a freedom protected under the First Amendment?

Choose one answer.

	a. Freedom of expression
	b. Freedom to bear arms
	c. The right to peacefully assemble and petition the government
	d. Freedom of religion
	e. Freedom of assembly

Question 75

Which of the following principles made the Bill of Rights applicable to the States?

Choose one answer.

	a. Clear and present danger
	b. Necessary and proper clause
	c. Incorporation principle
	d. Checks and balances
	e. Strict scrutiny principle

Question 76

Which of the following represents a true statement about the difference between de facto and de jure segregation?

Choose one answer.

	a. De facto segregation has been made illegal, where as de jure has not.
	b. De facto segregation is voluntary, and de jure is government enforced.
	c. De jure segregation has been ruled illegal based on several Supreme Court decisions.
	d. De facto segregation has a political impact, where as de jure primarily impacts society economically.
	e. De facto segregation is government enforced, and de jure is voluntary.

Question 77

Which of the following Supreme Court cases established the doctrine of "clear and present danger" when limiting freedom of expression?

Choose one answer.

	a. Texas v. Johnson (1989)
	b. Lemon v. Kurtzman (1971)
	c. Schenck v. United States (1919)
	d. Gibbons v. Ogden (1824)
	e. McCulloch v. Maryland (1819)

Question 78

Which of the following Supreme Court cases established the right to privacy?

Choose one answer.

	a. Roe v. Wade (1973)
	b. Loving v. Virginia (1967)
	c. Miranda v. Arizona (1966)
	d. Cruzan v. Director, Missouri Dept. of Health (1989)
	e. Tinker v. Des Moines (1990)

Question 79

Which of the following was a major impact of the Bakke (1978) decision?

Choose one answer.

	a. Affirmation Action was no longer considered Constitutional.
	b. Affirmative Action was considered "reverse discrimination" and therefore unconstitutional.
	c. State institutions could no longer use Affirmative Action to equalize opportunity.
	d. Using race as a criteria for admission was illegal.
	e. Reverse discrimination based on racial quotas violated the Civil Rights Act of 1964.

Question 80

Which of the following would NOT be considered an example of legislation that has promoted an increase in civil rights?

Choose one answer.

	a. 1991 Disabled Americans Act
	b. 1996 Defense of Marriage Act
	c. Title IX
	d. Voting Rights Act of 1965
	e. 1967 Age Discrimination in Employment Act

Question 81

Appropriations Committees do which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. Decide whether to authorize a federal program
	b. Decide whether to fund federal programs
	c. Hold hearings on the appropriateness of members' actions on the House floor
	d. Decide whether to accept the president's budget proposal
	e. All of the above

Question 82

Choose the best answer to fill in the blank. The type of economic system utilized in the United States is ______.

Choose one answer.

	a. Capitalism
	b. Socialism
	c. Mutualism
	d. Distributism
	e. Georgism

Question 83

Choose the best answer to fill in the blank. The President relies on the ______ to establish the budgets of federal agencies.

Choose one answer.

	a. Secretary of the Treasury
	b. Office of Personnel Management
	c. Office of Management and Budget
	d. Independent Regulatory Commission
	e. National Economic Council

Question 84

Fill in the blank. An agreement between the president and a leader of a foreign country that does not have to be ratified by the Senate is known as a(n) _________________.

Choose one answer.

	a. Non-ratified treaty
	b. Executive agreement
	c. Foreign policy agreement
	d. Presidential approval
	e. Alliance

Question 85

Fill in the blank. The most radical reforms to the welfare system in the United States occurred during the presidency of ________________.

Choose one answer.

	a. George W. Bush
	b. William J. Clinton
	c. Franklin D. Roosevelt
	d. Ronald Reagan
	e. Lyndon B. Johnson

Question 86

Fill in the blank. The United States' policy to stop the spread of communism was known as

Choose one answer.

	a. Domino theory
	b. Containment
	c. The Cold War
	d. Non-proliferation
	e. Operation Sputnik

Question 87

The No Child Left Behind Act of 2001 is an example of what type of public policy?

Choose one answer.

	a. Social welfare policy
	b. Economic policy
	c. Defense policy
	d. Education policy
	e. Entitlement spending policy

Question 88

What area of the budget has shown the greatest increase in spending over the past 20 years?

Choose one answer.

	a. The defense budget
	b. Executive programs
	c. Entitlement programs
	d. Federal student loan program
	e. Congressional earmarks

Question 89

What is the largest entitlement program in the United States?

Choose one answer.

	a. Medicare
	b. Medicaid
	c. Social Security
	d. Temporary Unemployment Insurance
	e. State Children's Health Insurance Program

Question 90

Which of the following economic theories would advocate for a minimal role of government in economic affairs?

Choose one answer.

	a. Laissez-faire doctrine
	b. Keynesian theory
	c. Monetarism
	d. Supply-side economics
	e. Fiscal conservatism

Question 91

Which of the following governmental entities is responsible for regulating and maintaining the U.S. financial system to attain economic stability and promote growth?

Choose one answer.

	a. Federal Trade Commission
	b. Office of the Comptroller of the Currency
	c. Securities Exchange Commission
	d. Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation
	e. Federal Reserve Board

Question 92

Which of the following is a significant presidential foreign policy shift taken after September 11, 2001?

Choose one answer.

	a. Congress declaring war on Iraq
	b. George W. Bush's Global War on Terror and "preemptive" doctrine
	c. Using NATO peacekeeping troops to help mend anti-American sentiments
	d. Oil-for-Food Programs
	e. United States participation in NAFTA

Question 93

Which of the following is a social insurance program that provides economic assistance to individuals who are unemployed, disabled, or elderly?

Choose one answer.

	a. TANF
	b. Food stamps
	c. Medicare Part B
	d. Social Security
	e. SCHIP

Question 94

Which of the following occurs first in the development of public policy?

Choose one answer.

	a. Policy enactment
	b. Agenda setting
	c. Policy implementation
	d. Policy evaluation
	e. Policy revision

Question 95

Which of the following plays a role in policy formation?

Choose one answer.

	a. Congress
	b. Interest groups and non-profit organizations
	c. The bureaucracy
	d. The president
	e. All of the above

Question 96

Which of the following statements is true of the origins of the modern American welfare state?

Choose one answer.

	a. It can be traced back to colonial times.
	b. It is mostly rooted in a Biblical obligation for helping the less fortunate.
	c. It can be traced back to the Great Depression and the New Deal.
	d. It can be traced back to the 1970s Great Society.
	e. It is smaller today than it has ever been in the past.

Question 97

Which of the following would be an example of regulatory policy?

Choose one answer.

	a. Federal food stamp programs
	b. Federal highway system
	c. Safety regulations for the automobile industry
	d. Income tax deductions for charitable contributions
	e. All of the above

Question 98

Which of the following would NOT be considered a key player in creating American foreign policy?

Choose one answer.

	a. Non-ratified treaty
	b. Executive agreement
	c. Foreign policy agreement
	d. Presidential approval
	e. Alliance
	f. The Secretary of State
	g. The Secretary of Defense
	h. The President
	i. The National Security Advisor
	j. The director of the Federal Bureau of Investigation

Question 99

Which of the following would NOT be considered a social welfare program?

Choose one answer.

	a. Medicare
	b. Medicaid
	c. Social Security
	d. Old-Age Survivors Disability Insurance
	e. None of the above

Question 100

Which statement is true about the War Powers Resolution?

Choose one answer.

	a. It has been used a number of times to limit the power of the president.
	b. It gave Congress the power to declare war.
	c. It was an attempt of Congress to limit the power of the president to sustain undeclared wars.
	d. It established the Joint Chiefs of Staff.
	e. It provided Congress with the ability to control the amount of American military presence in United Nation peacekeeping missions.