According to political theorists, public administrators attempt to solve the problems of government through the use of the bureaucracy. Which of the following is best suited to accomplish this task?

Choose one answer.

	a. Judicial
	b. Civil service
	c. Congress
	d. Executive branch

Question 2

Complete the following sentence. Public administration is the most significant component of the government machinery of the state and can be defined as:

Choose one answer.

	a. bureaucratic.
	b. politically neutral.
	c. being associated with private groups.
	d. having a legislative function.

Question 3

Complete the following sentence. The scope of public administration has changed over the years to take into account:

Choose one answer.

	a. maintaining law and order.
	b. providing more services and amenities.
	c. collecting revenue and taxes.
	d. dispensing justice.

Question 4

How might an organization interpret a narrow view of public administration?

Choose one answer.

	a. Public administration is a part of the political process.
	b. Public administration covers all branches of government.
	c. Public administration covers the administrative functions related to the executive branch.
	d. Public administration is associated with numerous public sector groups.

Question 5

Max Weber's legal-rational model of bureaucracy has which of the following elements?

Choose one answer.

	a. Impersonal order
	b. Rationality in decision-making
	c. Bounded rationality
	d. Empiricism

Question 6

Phase II in the evolution of public administration, from 1927-1937, established the discipline of public administration as an independent science. The succeeding Phase III, from 1939-1947, brought changes in the nature of the discipline. Which of the following should be included in Phase III?

Choose one answer.

	a. Inclusion of the visible side of government
	b. Inclusion of the functions of the executive - planning, organizing, staffing, directing, coordinating, reporting, and budgeting (POSDCORB)
	c. An emphasis on the effects of the environment on administrative behavior
	d. A focus on the dynamics of administration

Question 7

Phase IV in the evolution of public administration, from 1938-1937, is known as the "behavioral challenge" period. Which of the following best describes the dynamics of public administration during that period?

Choose one answer.

	a. The discipline was widened to include policy issues and decision-making processes.
	b. There was a crisis of identity in public administration as a discipline.
	c. There was a specific focus on the dynamics that were unique to administration.
	d. The "science" of administration gained greater credibility.

Question 8

The five E's of public administration affect elements like the need for good governance, transparency, and accountability in public administration in the US. Which of these E's is compatible with managing public resources to provide the most products at the lowest cost?

Choose one answer.

	a. Equity
	b. Economy
	c. Effectiveness
	d. Efficiency

Question 9

The history of public administration has been divided into five phases. The fifth phase, from 1971 onwards, is viewed as a period of great progress and an enriched vision. Which of the following is compatible with this phase?

Choose one answer.

	a. The claim of public administration as a science is challenged.
	b. The principles of public administration are expanded on.
	c. Public administration is viewed as an interdisciplinary issue.
	d. This phase is a period of dichotomy.

Question 10

The prevailing view of public administration divides its scope into two parts, administrative theory and applied administration. Which of the following is a part of the administrative theory point of view?

Choose one answer.

	a. Social welfare
	b. Public personnel administration
	c. Legislative
	d. Financial

Question 11

The prevailing view of public administration divides the subject into two parts, administrative theory and applied administration. Which of the following is included in applied administration?

Choose one answer.

	a. Public personnel management
	b. Political functions
	c. Organizational theory
	d. Behavioral theory

Question 12

Which of the following is a unique characteristic of public-sector organizations?

Choose one answer.

	a. Transparency of operations
	b. Effective service delivery system
	c. Diverse funding resources
	d. Skilled workforce

Question 13

Which of the following statements about the nature of public administration is true?

Choose one answer.

	a. Public administration is the basis of government.
	b. Public administration is the instrument of change in society.
	c. Public administration formulates public policy.
	d. Public administration is a part of the political process.

Question 14

Which of the following statements best describes the differences between public, nonprofit, and private sector organizations?

Choose one answer.

	a. The general public holds public organizations accountable, donors hold nonprofit organizations accountable, and owners hold private sector organizations accountable.
	b. Investors hold public organizations accountable, taxpayers hold nonprofit organizations accountable, and customers hold private sector organizations accountable.
	c. The general public holds public organizations accountable, lenders hold nonprofit organizations accountable, and customers hold private sector organizations accountable.
	d. Investors hold public organizations accountable, taxpayers hold nonprofit organizations accountable, and stockholders hold private sector organizations accountable.

Question 15

Which of the following statements would be consistent with the views of Douglas McGregor (1906-1964)?

Choose one answer.

	a. The average human being has an inherent dislike of work and will avoid it, if he can.
	b. The average person learns, under proper conditions, not only to accept but to seek responsibility.
	c. The average person prefers to be directed.
	d. The average person is unambiguous and desires security above everything else.

Question 16

A state university suspended its chief diversity officer after it was discovered that he had signed a petition to put same-sex marriage on the state ballot for a referendum vote. The university is home to a large contingent of gay and lesbian students, and the university's position is that the diversity officer is a public employee, and by signing the petition, the diversity officer may have alienated a large portion of the student body and may not be as effective in carrying out the university's mission. Which of the following statements best justifies whether or not the university was correct or incorrect in making this decision?

Choose one answer.

	a. The university was correct in questioning the diversity officer's ability to perform his job.
	b. The university was incorrect, because its actions infringed upon the diversity officer's First Amendment right to free speech.
	c. The university was incorrect, because it failed to provide the proper training on university policies and the consequences of employee violations.
	d. The university was correct in disciplining a public employee for engaging in political activities.

Question 17

Article II of the US Constitution outlines presidential powers, and over time, the executive branch has assumed additional powers. The term "imperial presidency," meaning a US presidency that is characterized by greater power than the Constitution allows, has been used to characterize the Nixon and Reagan presidencies. Which of the following arguments supports the premise of the imperial nature of the US presidency?

Choose one answer.

	a. The president has great leeway in reorganizing the federal government.
	b. The president has created new advisory bodies and appointed staff people who are personally loyal to the person holding the office of president.
	c. The president has expansive authorities in dictating federal spending.
	d. Personnel in the executive office of the president may act independent of, without regard for, and without accountability to Congress.

Question 18

Complete the following sentence with a logical clause. In the American political system, the advantages of federalism include:

Choose one answer.

	a. more measured public policies created through compromise and public debate.
	b. the inclusion of dissenting and different ethnic, cultural, and racial minority viewpoints in policy decisions.
	c. uniformity in policy making processes across states.
	d. a cohesive system of checks and balances.

Question 19

Complete the following sentence. Beginning with the Nixon administration, the primary focus of new federalism was on:

Choose one answer.

	a. federal and state government relations.
	b. federal, state, and local government relations.
	c. state and local government relations.
	d. interstate government relations.

Question 20

Complete the following sentence. Federalism in the US has taken on many forms throughout the nation's history. Under the Johnson, Nixon, and Bush administrations, federalism trended toward centralized relations among federal, state, and local governments. Under the Obama administration, federalism has advanced primarily in the form of:

Choose one answer.

	a. less federal regulation, expanded state authority over social programs, and greater citizen participation.
	b. distribution of more federal money, expanded targeted assistance, and federal entanglement in state policies.
	c. privatization of services, expanded government contracting, and increased incentives for small business financing.
	d. a whole-of-government perspective in developing tax proposals and an increase of the national debt.

Question 21

Complete the following sentence. Government in the US is divided into three branches: the executive, legislative, and judicial branches. The judicial branch, including the Supreme Court and various federal courts, interprets the law and applies it in individual cases. While not directly subject to popular control, courts may be influenced by popular opinion. An example of public opinion shaping the direction of court decisions includes:

Choose one answer.

	a. search and seizure cases.
	b. immigration cases.
	c. bankruptcy cases.
	d. employment discrimination cases.

Question 22

Complete the following sentence. Prior to the Civil War, the Constitution focused primarily on establishing the limitations of the federal government. Passage of the 13th, 14th and 15th Amendments immediately after the Civil War shifted the focus in the balance of power to:

Choose one answer.

	a. divert funds from local government to the federal government.
	b. subject a state's control over its own citizens to oversight by either the federal judiciary or Congress.
	c. expand the powers of local governments.
	d. focus of the rights of the individual.

Question 23

Complete the following sentence. The biggest criticism of unfunded mandates by state and local government officials is that:

Choose one answer.

	a. state and local governments have no role in developing the policies or their enforcement.
	b. the policies are an unfair imposition of the national government on smaller governments.
	c. the imposition of mandates may displace other state and local government priorities.
	d. federal regulations set inflexible timelines.

Question 24

Complete the following sentence. To date, 18 states and the District of Columbia have passed laws that exempt qualified users of medicinal marijuana from state legal penalties. The Supremacy Clause of the US Constitution elevates federal statutes and regulations above the laws of the states, and as a result, where federal and state laws are in conflict, the state law is generally preempted. Also under the supremacy clause, Congress may require the enforcement of federal laws in both state and federal court. State legalized medical marijuana use means that:

Choose one answer.

	a. individuals and businesses may engage in marijuana-related activities that are authorized by the state in which they live.
	b. the passage of medicinal marijuana laws affirm the states' right to pursue policies that deviate from those advanced by the federal government.
	c. compliance with state medical marijuana law does not provide a defense against prosecution brought under federal law.
	d. recreational marijuana use is also decriminalized.

Question 25

Issues associated with bureaucratic behavior and competence came to the forefront at the start of the dual federalism phase of intergovernmental relations. Important policy shifts happened that underscored the level of competition present in the system. Which of the following exemplified the competitive nature of this phase?

I. The need for program accomplishments, effective service delivery systems and citizen access.
II. Elimination/reduction in state program funding in favor of expanded federal funding for local programs.
III. Tension between policy generalists and the program-professional-specialists.
IV. Expanded regulatory restrictions governing federally assisted state and local programs

Choose one answer.

	a. II only
	b. II and IV
	c. I and III
	d. I only

Question 26

Most policies affecting k-12 education traditionally fall under state authority. However, President Bush's signature domestic policy initiative, "No Child Left Behind," mandated certain local procedures, including student testing, curriculum and teacher standards, and the imposition of penalties on nonperforming schools. Implementation of this law is an example of which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. Centralization
	b. Dual federalism
	c. Devolution
	d. Cooperative federalism

Question 27

Refer to the following text, and then answer the question.

"Federalism is simply the best political system ever conceived of for maximizing human happiness. A one-size-fits-all policy imposed at the national level has the potential to make very large numbers of citizens unhappy, even if it was arrived at democratically. Pushing political questions and government decisions down to the lowest democratic level possible - to states, counties, cities, school boards - while protecting basic civil rights, guarantees that more people will have a say in how they live their lives. More people will be happy, and the moral legitimacy of political decisions will be greater."

What is the best title for this text?

Choose one answer.

	a. Collaborative Policymaking: How Everyone Can Benefit
	b. The New Progressive Federalism
	c. To Make Government Work, Go Local
	d. Elevating the Role of the State

Question 28

Choose one answer.

	a. Most citizens are actively engaged in local political activities.
	b. The solution to federal government inaction is to disempower the national elites who think they have all of the answers.
	c. Politics at the national level do not reflect the interests of the individual citizen.
	d. A federalist compromise would make America a happier, more prosperous country.

Question 29

Choose one answer.

	a. It needs re-tooling.
	b. Citizens are not happy with the policies imposed at the federal level.
	c. Local governments can be effective in enacting policies that protect national interests.
	d. Citizen-enacted policies may be more responsive to citizens' needs.

Question 30

The 15th Amendment of the Constitution provides that, "The right of US citizens to vote shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or by any State on account of race, color, or previous condition of servitude." The Amendment gives Congress the authority to enforce those rights and regulate the voting process. With the Voting Rights Act of 1965, the federal government established extensive federal oversight of elections administration in covered state and local jurisdictions with long histories of voting discrimination. Through judicial interpretation, the Supreme Court has historically forced state and local governments to meet certain demands that they were otherwise unwilling or unable to meet. Which of the following is the most accurate statement with regard to the 2013 Supreme Court decision on voting rights?

Choose one answer.

	a. Pre-clearance unjustifiably violates state and local governments' constitutional prerogative to regulate elections within their borders.
	b. Times change, and the law has run its course.
	c. Current conditions, not history alone, must justify continuing application of the law.
	d. The Supreme Court has become more of a political agent as evidenced by both its selection of issues to review and decisions of cases along ideologically predictable lines.

Question 31

The phases in the evolution of intergovernmental relations have overlapping dates and carryover effects, but specific elements highlight each phase. The descriptor used for which phase stands for "the specific, functional, and highly focused nature of intergovernmental interaction"?

Choose one answer.

	a. Dual federalism phase (1865-1901)
	b. Cooperative federalism phase (1901-1960)
	c. Creative phase (1960-1968)
	d. Contemporary phase (1970-present)

Question 32

The term bureaucracy could be used to describe which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. The organizational structure and set of regulations that control the activities of people who work in large organizations
	b. The division of responsibilities, hierarchy, and informal networks that connect organizations
	c. The intricate distribution of authority and patterns of cooperation present in interpreting and executing policies
	d. All of these answers

Question 33

What rights does the Constitution reserve for the American people?

Choose one answer.

	a. All American citizens are free.
	b. There is equal protection under the law for all.
	c. Men and women over the age of 18 have the right to vote.
	d. All of these answers

Question 34

Which of the following best describes government money used for a specific purpose of project?

Choose one answer.

	a. Block grant
	b. Projection grant
	c. Categorical grant
	d. Mandated grant

Question 35

Which of the following best describes government money used for general purposes?

Choose one answer.

	a. Bock grants
	b. Formula grants
	c. Neighborhood grants
	d. Mandated grants

Question 36

Which of the following statements on Federal spending authority is false?

Choose one answer.

	a. Federal government powers have been greatly expanded during times of national crisis: the Civil War, World War I and II, the Great Depression, and after September 11, 2001.
	b. Federal funding, available to states and localities through grants-in-aid, has been the single most significant factor in bringing about planned federal-state collaboration.
	c. Cooperative federalism focuses on federal and state agencies synchronizing program budgets, rather than pursing separate objectives.
	d. As unrestricted funds, federal general revenue sharing had greater economic rather than political impact at the state and local levels.

Question 37

A written discipline and grievance procedure policy for civil service employees would cover which of the following issues?

Choose one answer.

	a. Job performance evaluations and paid and unpaid leave
	b. Collective bargaining and sick leave
	c. Political coercion and retaliations
	d. Family leave and equal employment opportunities

Question 38

According to various laws regarding workplace diversity, which of the following is prohibited in the workplace?

Choose one answer.

	a. Ethnic slurs
	b. Offhand comments
	c. Physical conduct
	d. Derogatory comments

Question 39

Complete the following sentence. Based on differences in the levels of public and private sector pay and benefits, the general public might assume that workers in the private sector:

Choose one answer.

	a. have more education.
	b. are employed in management, professional, and related occupations.
	c. enjoy greater union coverage for most occupations.
	d. tend to be younger.

Question 40

Complete the following sentence. The passage of the Pendleton Civil Service Act led to:

Choose one answer.

	a. the creation of a grievance system for prospective public employees.
	b. more public support for patronage jobs.
	c. employee recruitment and hiring based upon merit.
	d. a stable federal, state, and local government workforce.

Question 41

Congress passed legislation in 1993 amending the Hatch Act of 1939 to permit federal employees to take part in partisan political campaigns. As a result, public employees may participate in which of the following partisan activities?

Choose one answer.

	a. They may engage in political activity while on duty.
	b. They may use their official authority to intervene in an election.
	c. They may be candidates for public office in nonpartisan elections.
	d. They may wear political buttons while on duty.

Question 42

Discrimination in the workplace has led to many legal challenges. The US Supreme Court decision in the 1971 Griggs et al. v. Duke Power Company case led to which major finding?

Choose one answer.

	a. Acknowledgement that the company openly discriminated prior to 1964.
	b. No law prohibits an employer's use of testing or measuring procedures.
	c. An employee with minority origins should receive preferential treatment.
	d. Any test used must measure the person for the job and not the person in the abstract.

Question 43

Even though there are differences between collective bargaining in the public and private sectors, there are certain concepts and legal factors that should be present in both arenas. Which of the following is NOT a bargaining issue within either sphere?

Choose one answer.

	a. Inalienable rights given to management, employees, and the union
	b. The creation of an agency or office to supervise the process
	c. Equal rights for women and minorities
	d. Determination as to who will be included on the bargaining unit

Question 44

Presidential Executive Order 13583 calls for a workforce that reflects the country's diverse population and draws upon the talents of all of our society. Which of the following is NOT consistent with this vision?

Choose one answer.

	a. Expanding the hiring preferences for people with disabilities
	b. Recruiting personnel from a heterogeneous, qualified group of applicants
	c. Creating a team culture in the organization
	d. Encouraging telework, flexi-place, and employee wellness programs

Question 45

The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) enforces laws that prohibit employment policies and practices that discriminate against different classes of individuals. The EEOC would consider all of the following scenarios to be discriminatory, EXCEPT:

Choose one answer.

	a. an organization makes a decision about job assignments based upon pregnancy.
	b. an organization takes academic credentials and testing into consideration.
	c. an organization avoids choosing the oldest worker, because he or she may be less productive.
	d. an organization conducts pre-employment inquires about disability.

Question 46

The merit system is different from the patronage system in terms of their emphases. Which of the following can be viewed as a prominent characteristic of the merit system?

Choose one answer.

	a. Equal pay
	b. Political loyalty
	c. Job requirements
	d. Nepotism

Question 47

The presence of unions and collective bargaining units has receded in many sectors over the past decade but are pretty prominent for public employees. Which of the following statements regarding collective bargaining between management and labor in a bilateral decision-making process is false?

Choose one answer.

	a. Management and labor should meet and, in good faith, negotiate such matters as wages, hours, etc.
	b. Management and labor should agree to share responsibility for administering the provisions of a contract.
	c. Local governments determine bargaining in some states.
	d. Management should produce a contract without a specified duration, because government managers can still act unilaterally on behalf of employees.

Question 48

The US Department of Labor has documented examples of how people have benefited from federal contract compliance programs. Which of the following would be excluded as an example of contract compliance success?

Choose one answer.

	a. A woman became an astronaut because of NASA's affirmative action program.
	b. The US government successfully recruited low-income people from the Appalachian region because of affirmative action programs.
	c. Native Americans secured employment on federal highway construction projects because of affirmative action programs.
	d. Women and ethnic minorities have gained access to skilled labor apprentice programs in large federal construction projects because of affirmative action programs.

Question 49

Which of the following best describes an advantage of hiring individuals based on the patronage system?

Choose one answer.

	a. Subordinates' loyalty
	b. Merit principles
	c. Individuals' expertise
	d. Employee competence

Question 50

Which of the following best describes the difference between the traditional pay system and the pay-for-performance system?

Choose one answer.

	a. The influence of a union's success
	b. The spoils system's success
	c. Paper intensive accomplishments and the organization's success
	d. Individual performance and the organization's success

Question 51

Which of the following focuses on issues in the workplace related to discrimination based on gender?

Choose one answer.

	a. Affirmative action
	b. Equal employment opportunity
	c. Diversity guidelines
	d. Americans with disabilities

Question 52

Complete the following sentence. Experts define the expectancy theory of motivation in terms of:

Choose one answer.

	a. experiences that satisfy and dissatisfy people in the work place.
	b. the need for achievement, power, and affiliation.
	c. the relationships among effort, performance, and eventual outcomes.
	d. the need for managers to constantly watch over their employees to motivate them.

Question 53

Complete the following sentence. Research shows that public and private managers have very few differences in overall measures of motivation. However, for some people, government employment appeals to their desire to:

Choose one answer.

	a. earn lots of money.
	b. serve the public interest.
	c. be elected to public office.
	d. influence market outcomes.

Question 54

Complete the following sentence. The theory of inequity is defined as a situation in which a person thinks that he or she is receiving less than he or she is giving, or vice versa. According to the theory, there are several ways to restore equity, including:

Choose one answer.

	a. creating a timeline between projects.
	b. altering the person's inputs.
	c. embracing a results-driven outcome.
	d. altering expectations.

Question 55

Humans are driven to achieve their maximum potential and will always do so unless obstacles are placed in their way, according to which theory?

Choose one answer.

	a. Prime theory
	b. Content theory
	c. Humanistic theory
	d. Adaptive theory

Question 56

New public management claims to address such issues as low public confidence in bureaucracy, waste, poor program design, and performance deficit. Which of the following would be an example of new public management reforms in action?

Choose one answer.

	a. Redevelopment of former military bases to create residential and commercial mixed-use communities
	b. A local tax-payer funded program that provides a $500 monthly housing voucher for teachers, police, and firefighters to help them live in the city
	c. Investing in capital improvements to maintain roads, bridges, sewers, etc.
	d. Tax credits to encourage a big-box store to relocate to the local area

Question 57

The characteristics of the traditional model of public administration include which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. An apolitical civil service
	b. Hierarchy and rules
	c. Permanence and stability
	d. All of these answers

Question 58

Theorists argue that our behavior is a product of capability, opportunity, and motivation. In this equation, what role does motivation play?

Choose one answer.

	a. Motivation engages two opposing forces.
	b. Motivation determines what we actually do.
	c. Motivation communicates our intents.
	d. Motivation provides situational feedback.

Question 59

Theory Y asserts that people have a natural desire to learn and working allows people to challenge themselves and further develop as human beings. According to this theory, managers should do which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. Reward individual performance with perks.
	b. Work to integrate the company's needs with its employees' love of learning.
	c. Encourage a team approach to carrying out assignments.
	d. Constantly watch over their employees to motivate them.

Question 60

Which of the following is a main concern regarding the traditional model of public administration?

Choose one answer.

	a. Inclusiveness
	b. Accountability
	c. Regionalism
	d. Politics

Question 61

Which of the following is the most salient feature of new public management?

Choose one answer.

	a. Flexible working conditions and the promotion of contractual opportunities
	b. A centralized command structure and task specialization
	c. Aligning public sector activities to private sector market conditions
	d. Public agencies publicizing their activities and its performance results on a regular basis

Question 62

Which of the following public administration theories is most frequently associated with the work of Herbert Simon, Nobel Prize Laureate in Economics?

Choose one answer.

	a. The development of managerial talent and managerial teamwork in organizations
	b. Theory X and theory Y
	c. Charismatic authority
	d. Decision-making

Question 63

You are a unit manager with 10 direct-report subordinates. Your experience with one particular employee has served to strengthen your belief in theory X. Which of the following best describes this employee?

Choose one answer.

	a. The employee always arrives to work on time, but never works overtime and has a record of frequent Monday and/or Friday absences.
	b. The employee performs his job and regularly scores acceptable ratings on his annual performance reviews but can never be counted on to go above and beyond.
	c. The employee never volunteers for a project but always meets the deadline on any assigned project.
	d. The employee shows up and enthusiastically works on her PC all day but has been caught more than once working on her social network sites.

Question 64

You are part of a team interviewing a prospective new employee for a position in your unit. In response to a question, the interviewee shares that he "really enjoys meeting new people and wants to make a difference in peoples' lives." You believe his greatest motivation will be which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. The job title
	b. The recognition
	c. The salary
	d. Direct engagement

Question 65

Complete the following sentence. The Programming, Planning, and Budgeting System (PPBS) is a stronger model than performance-based budgeting if you are seeking:

Choose one answer.

	a. greater operational control.
	b. greater program accountability.
	c. greater management control.
	d. greater funding availability.

Question 66

Federal tax revenue is derived from a variety of sources. Which of the following is NOT taxable by the federal government?

Choose one answer.

	a. Individual and corporate revenue
	b. Inheritance and estate revenue
	c. User fees
	d. Social security wages

Question 67

Fill in the blank. Several arbitrators influence how public finances are ultimately dispersed. The public has designated _______ to determine how public money should be spent.

Choose one answer.

	a. corporate leaders
	b. bureaucrats
	c. politicians
	d. judges

Question 68

Over the years, there have been many attempts to reform the federal budget. Which of the following reflects the most recent effort in this regard?

Choose one answer.

	a. New performance budgeting
	b. A balanced budget amendment
	c. Supply side economics
	d. A planning-programming-budgeting system

Question 69

State governments traditionally raise funds from many sources. Which of the following revenue sources is outside the scope of the state government's operations?

Choose one answer.

	a. Fuel taxes
	b. Property taxes
	c. Sales taxes
	d. Licenses

Question 70

The core mission of the Office of Management and Budget is to serve the President of the United States in implementing his vision across the executive branch. Which of the following is incompatible with the Office of Management and Budget's implementation and enforcement of presidential policy government wide?

Choose one answer.

	a. The Office of Management and Budget reviews and approves all agency communications with Congress, including testimony and draft bills.
	b. The Office of Management and Budget oversees agency performance and procurement.
	c. The Office of Management and Budget controls the activities involved in filling key administrative positions.
	d. The Office of Management and Budget issues executive orders and presidential memoranda to agency heads and other officials.

Question 71

The national performance review conducted during the Clinton administration resulted in which of the following changes to the budget development process?

Choose one answer.

	a. Biannual budgets
	b. Zero-based budgeting
	c. Civil service reform
	d. A planning-programming-budgeting system

Question 72

The timeline for a typical state budget includes at least seven stages, from an agency's budget request to the day the budget year begins. Which of the following would be the most important step in this process?

Choose one answer.

	a. Public hearings
	b. Governor's budget request
	c. Legislature adoption
	d. Governor signs or vetoes

Question 73

There are at least four major classes of public expenditures included in the budget. Which of the following tends to be the largest class of public expenditures?

Choose one answer.

	a. Public program expenditures
	b. Capital gains
	c. Capital expenditures
	d. Debt servicing

Question 74

There are two general categories of spending in the US federal budget: discretionary and mandatory. Which of the following line items falls into the category of discretionary?

Choose one answer.

	a. Defense spending
	b. Social security
	c. Home mortgage deduction
	d. GI bill

Question 75

Which of the following premises does not support the argument that the federal budget is a political instrument?

Choose one answer.

	a. The federal budget establishes the cost of programs.
	b. The federal budget provides criteria for evaluation.
	c. The federal budget dictates capital spending and operating activities.
	d. The federal budget sets spending limitations.

Question 76

Which of the following revenue sources accounts for the smallest contribution to local government coffers?

Choose one answer.

	a. Property taxes
	b. Individual income taxes
	c. Intergovernmental transfers
	d. User fees/charges

Question 77

Which of the following statements best describes the purpose of a budget in public agencies?

Choose one answer.

	a. Budgets reflect a rational decision-making process.
	b. Budgets reflect the political issues of the moment.
	c. Budgets are statements about management priorities.
	d. Budgets are a means of forecasting expenditures.

Question 78

Which of the following statements is the most relevant criticism of the zero-based budgeting approach?

Choose one answer.

	a. Zero-based budgeting greatly hinders program consistency.
	b. Zero-based budgeting may increase the time and expense of preparing a budget.
	c. Zero-based budgeting makes budget discussions more substantive during review sessions.
	d. Zero-based budgeting will reduce the entitlement mentality with respect to cost increases.

Question 79

Agencies take different approaches to strategic planning, but some of the most universal features of the planning process include which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. Setting a vision for the future
	b. Assessing where an organization is currently
	c. Measuring to evaluate progress
	d. All of these answers

Question 80

Based on observations and first-hand experiences, author George F. Grob outlined some practical elements of conducting successful government program evaluations in "The Pillars of Public Program Evaluation." The third pillar is to establish government agencies that evaluate public programs. Which of the following government offices performs evaluations for policymakers?

Choose one answer.

	a. CFR
	b. GAO
	c. AMT
	d. EPRI

Question 81

Complete the following sentence. The Planning, Programming, and Budgeting System (PPBS) is a methodical approach to:

Choose one answer.

	a. linking goals and program cost-benefits.
	b. planning for long-term needs while achieving cost savings.
	c. deciding who gets what, when, and how in society.
	d. coordinating and controlling budget line-items.

Question 82

Extensive program planning systems gained popularity in the 1960s during the great society social programs associated with the Kennedy and Johnson administrations. Which of the following best describes an important lesson for each succeeding administration?

Choose one answer.

	a. Program planning systems can be a time consuming process that does not translate easily from agency to agency.
	b. Only preliminary evaluation is possible, because change implementation requires five years.
	c. Program planning systems can be helpful in measuring how far objectives are achieved economically.
	d. Program planning systems provide regular procedures for reviewing goals and objectives.

Question 83

Fill in the blanks. According to the Government Performance and Results Act (GPRA), a typical federal agency strategic plan should span a minimum ______________ but is considered current for only ______________.

Choose one answer.

	a. 6 year period; 3 years
	b. 5 year period; 1 year
	c. 2 year period; 1 year
	d. 10 year period; 2 years

Question 84

In his article, "The Pillars of Public Program Evaluation," author George F. Grob offered professional insight and advice for administrators and decision makers seeking to make evaluation a standard part of program management. His recommendations included which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. Control operations and changes to performance objectives.
	b. Integrate parts into a whole.
	c. Train staff to sell and deliver the product.
	d. Stick to the evidence, and use multiple methods.

Question 85

Performance measures - inputs, outputs, outcomes, and other key issues needed to measure progress - are an important part of any effective strategic plan. Which of the following would be an input measure?

Choose one answer.

	a. The number of applications received
	b. The number of tickets issued
	c. The number of personnel hours used
	d. The number of students enrolled

Question 86

Review the chart below, and answer the question that follows.

The SWOT analysis process enables proactive thinking, rather than relying on habitual or instinctive reactions. The SWOT analysis below was completed as part of the strategic planning process for a nonprofit organization. Your objective is to build strategies for the future by considering how to turn weaknesses into strengths and how to turn threats into opportunities. Based on the information below, what is the likely next step in this process?

Choose one answer.

	a. Identify most relevant issues under each SWOT factor.
	b. Identify items to be eliminated from the budget.
	c. Prepare operational, resource, and project plans for implementation.
	d. Conduct research to document assumptions.

Question 87

Review the chart below, and answer the question that follows.

Based on the SWOT analysis below, as a manager, how might you capitalize on the opportunity to "identify/tap into staff hidden strengths"?

Choose one answer.

	a. Conduct focus groups with employees to elicit information on their knowledge and interests.
	b. Initiate employee suggestion/rewards system.
	c. Solicit new ideas that might produce immediate changes/improvements.
	d. Provide flexibility in how employees complete their work.

Question 88

The Bush Administration developed and used the Program Assessment and Rating Tool (PART) as its principal means of tracking performance and assessing federal program effectiveness. Which of the following statements about PART's pragmatism is true?

Choose one answer.

	a. The performance measures apply to most agency programs.
	b. Program data collection/outcome planning supports budget planning processes.
	c. Budgetary caps are effective guidelines to shape program objectives.
	d. Program measures were not effective in both shaping program improvements and informing budget allocations.

Question 89

The strategic plan and all the steps associated with creating and implementing it boils down to results. Read the statements below. Which of the following factors are the most important in assessing the strength of your strategic plan?

I. Your plan goals are directly related to measurable outcomes.
II. Performance measurements for employees define accountabilities that tie back to the measurement of plan goals.
III. You begin by conducting both an internal assessment of the organization's resources, people, and culture as well as an external assessment of the marketplace, technology, and economic cycles.
IV. You have communicated with key partners or suppliers about the plan goals that might affect them.

Choose one answer.

	a. II and III
	b. II and IV
	c. I and III
	d. I and IV

Question 90

What does the acronym SWOT stand for?

Choose one answer.

	a. Sample, weigh, optimize, train
	b. Strengths, work-plan, objectives, timing
	c. Strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, threats
	d. Set goals, work-plan, objectives, timing

Question 91

What makes a plan "strategic"?

Choose one answer.

	a. Having committed organizational leaders
	b. Determining the most effective allocation and use of resources
	c. Setting challenging goals
	d. Setting a timeline for implementation

Question 92

Which form of evaluation assesses the extent to which a program is operating as intended and typically assesses program activities' conformance to statutory and regulatory requirements, program design, and customer expectations?

Choose one answer.

	a. Impact evaluation
	b. Process/implementation evaluation
	c. Outcome evaluation
	d. Cost-benefit/cost effectiveness analyses

Question 93

Which of the following defines a strategic plan?

Choose one answer.

	a. Assessing the results of previous activities compared to expectations
	b. Planning that relies heavily on an organization's "capacity"
	c. Both A and B
	d. None of these answers

Question 94

Which of the following statements about shaping your strategic plan is effectively instructive?

Choose one answer.

	a. Ambiguous plan goals may lead to misinterpretation of the desired outcomes.
	b. Focus your strategic plan goals to avoid overloading your plan with more than you can accomplish.
	c. Strategic plans break down when they fail to identify who will be responsible for executing specific tasks.
	d. Your strategic plan should be integrated into your operational plan.

Question 95

Based on surveys taken by executive branch federal employees in 1992 and 2010, the most frequently cited wrongdoing that survey respondents reported having observed in the previous 12 months was "waste caused by a badly managed program." Employees were reluctant to report this wasteful activity because of:

Choose one answer.

	a. the belief that nothing would be done to correct the activity.
	b. the fear of reprisals.
	c. the fear of being labeled a traitor.
	d. the fear of being accused of stepping outside of the internal chain of command.

Question 96

Complete the following sentence. The Cooper model of ethical decision-making provides specific steps to follow in reaching a decision. In this model, "defining the issue" is described as being the most misinterpreted step. This step is about:

Choose one answer.

	a. determining which ethical principles and values are involved.
	b. determining the most ideal outcome.
	c. defining the problem.
	d. determining which decision to make.

Question 97

Complete the following sentence. Whistleblowing is a matter of ethics, because:

Choose one answer.

	a. it represents a person's understanding of why an action might be harmful to public interests.
	b. it encourages employers to make administrative activities more efficient and effective.
	c. it prevents abuse of authority.
	d. it reinforces self-regulation.

Question 98

Employees are the most valuable asset that agencies have in their efforts to reduce fraud, waste, and abuse. Ultimately, the best way to ensure that employees will report wrongdoing is to do which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. Create agency cultures that make it clear that management wants to stop wrongdoing.
	b. Provide legal protections for whistleblowers that experience actual retaliation or threats of retaliation.
	c. Expand efforts to create transparency in program activities.
	d. Avoid agency cultures that make it clear that management wants to stop wrongdoing.

Question 99

Ethics and accountability in government operations are essential in preventing a corrupt system. To ensure an unbiased system, which of the following bridges the gap between public perception and the performance of public service?

Choose one answer.

	a. Partiality
	b. Honesty
	c. Transparency
	d. A system to monitor and control the quality of government activities

Question 100

Ethics are principles that guide decision-making, and there are a variety of ethical theories to help shape that decision-making process. Read the statement below, and then indicate which ethical theory was violated.

"A governor borrowed a car from his local dealership to take it for a test drive. He kept the car for four years, during which the dealership won millions in state contracts."

Choose one answer.

	a. People should honor their obligations and duties.
	b. The choice that yields the greatest benefit to the most people is the ethically correct choice.
	c. The rights set forth by a society should be considered ethically correct and valid since the majority of the population endorses them.
	d. A person should be judged by his character rather than by an action that may deviate from his normal behavior.

Question 101

Public officials are constantly in search of additional revenue sources. Ethical questions have been posed by a small but vocal group of constituents who oppose several proposals included in the projected annual local budget. Proposals regarding which of the following might present an ethical dilemma for public officials?

Choose one answer.

	a. Slot machines
	b. Local lottery
	c. Liquor licenses for grocery stores
	d. Rezoning of wetlands and parklands for commercial development

Question 102

The American Society for Public Administration (ASPA), an organization that advances the practice of public administration, and the US Office of Government Ethics each have drafted a Code of Ethics. Which of the following practices do the two codes share?

Choose one answer.

	a. Do not engage in financial transactions using nonpublic government information or allow the improper use of such information to further any private interest.
	b. Promote the interests of the public and put service to the public above service to oneself.
	c. Employees shall not engage in outside employment or activities, including seeking or negotiating for employment, that conflict with official government duties and responsibilities.
	d. Disclose waste, fraud, abuse, and corruption to appropriate authorities.

Question 103

The Cooper model of ethical decision-making includes which of the following steps?

Choose one answer.

	a. The descriptive task
	b. Identifying alternative courses of action
	c. Projecting the possible consequences
	d. All of these answers

Question 104

Which of the following is an example of whistleblowing?

Choose one answer.

	a. A newspaper columnist writes a story reporting accounting fraud committed by city contractor.
	b. An office administrator inflates the numbers in her official monthly reports.
	c. An employee notifies OSHA that a trucking company requires its employees to drive in excess of OSHA's hours-of-service regulations.
	d. After having exhausted all internal reporting options, a former employee drops the issue once he switches jobs.

Question 105

Which of the following represents a moral dilemma that a person working in public service faces?

Choose one answer.

	a. Concern for the well-being of others
	b. Courage in fighting injustice
	c. Respect for the Constitution and other laws
	d. All of these answers