1
Currently, what is the largest organization in the National Security framework of the US government?
Choose one answer.
a. Central Intelligence Agency
b. Department of Homeland Security
c. Department of Defense
d. US State Department
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Question 2
Errors made in the risk assessment leading up to the 2003 invasion of Iraq by the US are often attributed to which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. Groupthink
b. Politicization of intelligence analysis
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
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Question 3
Fill in the blank. Defeating an opponent by use of tactical maneuvers and psychological games is characteristic of the strategies developed by _________________.
Choose one answer.
a. Antoine Jomini
b. Edward Luttwak
c. Joseph Goebbels
d. Sun Tzu
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Question 4
In 2000, vital interests of the US included all of the following, EXCEPT:
Choose one answer.
a. Disruption of terrorists' cells and prevention of terrorist attacks.
b. Prevention of attacks by weapons of mass destruction on US soil or against US forces abroad.
c. Promotion of stability in the nations along America's borders.
d. Improvement of relations with Russia and China.
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Question 5
In addition to the deployment of military power, national security strategists also consider the use of which type of power when they are implementing national security policy?
Choose one answer.
a. Diplomatic
b. Informational
c. Economic
d. All of the above
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Question 6
In the "Vertical Continuum of National Security Policy" model, "policy" rests upon which factors?
Choose one answer.
a. Ends, ways, and means
b. Strategy and tactics
c. Inputs and outputs
d. The government, the military, the people, and technology
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Question 7
What is an inequality of power among nations resulting in a single nation being the most powerful in terms of political, military, economic, and cultural influence called?
Choose one answer.
a. Dictatorship
b. Hegemony
c. Autocracy
d. Aristocracy
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Question 8
What is the theoretical model that presents "strategy" as resting on a three-legged stool in which "ends/objectives," "ways/concepts," and "means/resources" must all be balanced called?
Choose one answer.
a. Axis powers
b. Balance of powers
c. Lykke proposition
d. Strategic triad
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Question 9
Which of the following is a common criticism of the post-9/11 security apparatus?
Choose one answer.
a. Intelligence analysis has become politicized.
b. There is insufficient sharing of data between organizations.
c. Policies governing organizations and their operations are poorly written.
d. All of the above
.
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Question 10
Fill in the blank. Those conditions which are strictly necessary to safeguard and enhance Americans' survival and well-being in a free and secure nation are called __________________.
Choose one answer.
a. Survival interests
b. National security interests
c. Vital interests
d. Necessary interests
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Question 11
Examples of Groupthink impacting national security decisions by a president include which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. The Bay of Pigs invasion
b. The bombing of Hiroshima
c. The Marshall Plan
d. All of the above
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Question 12
From the years 2002-2012, the biggest "check" on the powers of the president in the exercise of his powers to detain and punish enemy combatants has been wielded by which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. The Senate
b. The US House of Representatives
c. Congressional Oversight Committees
d. The US Supreme Court
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Question 13
How many times in its history has the US declared war on other countries?
Choose one answer.
a. 5
b. 7
c. 8
d. More than 10
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Question 14
President Nixon sought to avoid investigation of himself and his aides in connection with the Pentagon Papers and the Watergate break-in by doing which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. Suing members of Congress in federal court
b. Firing most of his staff
c. Claiming that executive privilege exempted him from complying with subpoenas
d. All of the above
.
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Question 15
The US Constitution gives the president all of the following powers with respect to national security, EXCEPT:
Choose one answer.
a. Power to nominate ambassadors.
b. Title of Commander-in-Chief of the Armed Forces.
c. Power to ratify treaties.
d. Power to nominate cabinet members.
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Question 16
The US Constitution vests who with the power to declare war?
Choose one answer.
a. The President
b. Congress
c. The Department of Defense
d. None of the above
.
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Question 17
What was the original legislative intent of the Posse Comitatus Act?
Choose one answer.
a. To aid American settlers by providing them with armed security forces as they moved West during the 19th Century
b. To contain the threat of communism
c. To prevent the US military from engaging in domestic law enforcement activities
d. To rebuild Western Europe following World War II
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Question 18
Which of the following statements about the War Powers Act is true?
Choose one answer.
a. The War Powers Act requires the president to give Congress advance notice of the deployment of military forces in whenever possible.
b. Unless Congress gives specific authorization in writing allowing for continued deployment or use of force, the War Power Act requires any deployment or use of force by the US military must cease after 90 days.
c. The War Powers Act requires the president to give a status report to Congress within 48 hours of initial troop deployments.
d. All of the above
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Question 19
Who makes decisions about the level of security classification, if any, of government plans, programs, budgets, reports, and other documents?
Choose one answer.
a. Congress
b. The Executive Branch
c. The US Supreme Court
d. The Intelligence Oversight Committees
.
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Question 20
Who created the National Security Council?
Choose one answer.
a. The National Security Agency
b. Presidential Decision Directive (PDD) 56
c. Article II of the US Constitution
d. The National Security Act of 1947
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Question 21
Congress passed the Foreign Intelligence Surveillance Act (FISA) in order to do which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. Limit the activities of foreign intelligence operatives in the US
b. Increase the funding for predator drones and satellites used for intelligence operations
c. Require US intelligence agencies to apply to a special court for warrants when they are conducting intelligence operations within the US
d. Establish the National Security Agency
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Question 22
Congressional oversight of intelligence operations has often failed due to which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. Partisanship
b. Poor communications and vague areas of responsibility
c. Limited expertise by committee members
d. All of the above
.
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Question 23
Fill in the blank. Racial integration within the military is one example of an action that US presidents have taken without the consent of Congress, through the use of a(n) ___________________.
Choose one answer.
a. Signing statement
b. Executive order
c. National security directive
d. Private bill
.
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Question 24
If Congress wanted to remove all US military forces from Afghanistan over the objection of the US President, what would be the most expeditious way to do so?
Choose one answer.
a. Pass a constitutional amendment restricting the president's powers as Commander-in-Chief.
b. Pass a concurrent resolution under the War Powers Act ordering that troops be removed within 90 days.
c. Decline further funding for military operations in Afghanistan.
d. Sue the president in federal court, requesting that the court order troops be removed from Afghanistan.
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Question 25
Under which provision of the US Constitution have presidents been able to usurp power from Congress?
Choose one answer.
a. The "take care" clause
b. The veto power
c. The president's position as Commander-in-Chief of the Armed Forces
d. All of the above
.
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Question 26
What was the most recent declaration of war by Congress?
Choose one answer.
a. World War II
b. The Vietnam War
c. Operation Iraqi Freedom
d. Operation Enduring Freedom
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Question 27
When individual members of Congress have sued presidents in federal court, seeking to enjoin or cease military use of force, federal courts have done which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. Granted injunctive relief if the actions of the president occurred without a declaration of war
b. Dismissed their claims on the basis of the "political questions doctrine"
c. Ordered trials by jury
d. Dismissed their claims due to a lack of standing
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Question 28
Which tactic permits a single US Senator to block or delay legislative action by engaging in extended floor debate?
Choose one answer.
a. Cloture
b. Divestiture
c. Cloaking
d. Filibuster
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Question 29
Why do many members of Congress have little interest in serving on Intelligence Oversight Committees?
Choose one answer.
a. They have limited knowledge or experience in the intelligence field.
b. The actions of the committees are most often secret, so there is little "political gain" to be had from the appointment.
c. Many are in states or districts that are only minimally impacted by intelligence operations.
d. All of the above
.
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Question 30
Congress can "check" the power of the president in national security by doing all of the following, EXCEPT:
Choose one answer.
a. Making program funds subject to restrictions on operations.
b. Vetoing an Executive Order.
c. Issuing subpoenas to the president, vice president, and members of their staff.
d. Refusing to ratify treaties.
.
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Question 31
According to Clausewitz, war is considered to be which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. Hell
b. The result of economic scarcity
c. Best won by winning the hearts and minds of those invaded
d. The use of violence to achieve some purpose
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Question 32
According to Clausewitz, what is the driving force of war?
Choose one answer.
a. Violence
b. Policy dictated by politicians
c. Public opinion
d. Money and weapons
.
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Question 33
If the army needed satellite imagery of a particular location in order to initiate a military attack, which intelligence agency would be tasked with providing the data?
Choose one answer.
a. The Central Intelligence Agency
b. The National Security Agency
c. The National Reconnaissance Office
d. The Defense Intelligence Agency
.
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Question 34
If the Pentagon were seeking information on the location of weapons of mass destruction in another country, which of the following forms of intelligence would be considered the least reliable?
Choose one answer.
a. HUMINT
b. COMINT
c. ELINT
d. MASINT
.
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Question 35
The Department of Homeland Security is tasked with all of the following, EXCEPT:
Choose one answer.
a. Manning immigration and border checkpoints.
b. Collecting customs taxes on imported goods.
c. Searching passengers prior to boarding commercial aircraft.
d. Inspecting cruise ships for seaworthiness and passenger safety.
.
.
Question 36
The fact that the US has not deployed nuclear or atomic bombs against an enemy in combat since World War II can best be explained by which of the following principles?
Choose one answer.
a. Just cause
b. Proportionality
c. Last resort
d. Public declaration
.
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Question 37
USSID 18, as it was originally enacted, prohibited the National Security Agency from collecting intelligence on "American persons." Which president first amended USSID 18 to allow NSA to collect intelligence on "American persons," under certain conditions?
Choose one answer.
a. Richard Nixon
b. Ronald Reagan
c. Bill Clinton
d. George W. Bush
.
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Question 38
Which intelligence agency is charged with collecting, analyzing, and reporting on foreign signals intelligence (SIGINT) information?
Choose one answer.
a. Central Intelligence Agency
b. Defense Intelligence Agency
c. National Reconnaissance Office
d. National Security Agency
.
.
Question 39
Which writer from Ancient Greece is considered one of the fathers of modern military strategy?
Choose one answer.
a. Aristotle
b. Plato
c. Thucydides
d. Homer
.
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Question 40
Fill in the blank. The tendency of military commanders to only look at their own operations, rather than the entire battlefield, when engaging in strategic planning is called _________________.
Choose one answer.
a. Theater-itis
b. Tactical engagement
c. Localization
d. Entrenchment
.
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Question 41
A nation's economic power is generally the result of which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. Natural resources
b. Human capital
c. Industrialization
d. All of the above
.
.
Question 42
Congress can check the power of the National Security Council (NSC) by all of the following means, EXCEPT:
Choose one answer.
a. Use of the War Powers Act.
b. Reductions or restrictions on funding and appropriation of national security programs.
c. Refusing to confirm presidential appointments of Cabinet members.
d. Vetoing NSC decisions.
.
.
Question 43
Decision makers can avoid the risks of groupthink by doing which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. Limiting the number of participants in the policymaking process
b. Achieving quick consensus on decisions
c. Seeking opposing and contradictory alternatives to proposals
d. All of the above
.
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Question 44
Fill in the blank. The argument that the USSR was defeated in the Cold War due to the arms race with the US is an application of the _______________ theory of strategic policymaking.
Choose one answer.
a. Attrition
b. Scorched earth
c. Realpolitik
d. Star Wars
.
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Question 45
Fill in the blank. The use of positive incentives and non-coercive means to change the behavior of another country is a diplomatic tactic called _______________.
Choose one answer.
a. Engagement
b. Tariffs
c. Detente
d. Realpolitik
.
.
Question 46
If the US State Department wanted to measure the impact of an economic development program implemented in Afghanistan, which of the following statistics would they assess?
Choose one answer.
a. Increase in per capita income among Afghans
b. Decrease in attacks on Afghan government buildings
c. Increase in attacks on military forces
d. All of the above
.
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Question 47
Which of the following is one major weakness in America's economic power in national security affairs?
Choose one answer.
a. The politicization of the budget process
b. The reliance on foreign oil
c. The instability of American banks and stock markets
d. All of the above
.
.
Question 48
Which of the following is the optimal decision making model in the area of national security?
Choose one answer.
a. Policy Triad Model
b. Rational Actor Model
c. Governmental Politics Model
d. None of the above
.
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Question 49
Who is the direct supervisor of the National Security Advisor?
Choose one answer.
a. President
b. Vice President
c. Secretary of State
d. Secretary of Defense
.
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Question 50
Which president implemented the Schedule C Personnel program to integrate public service career-personnel into the national security policy process that had previously been exclusive to elected officials and political appointees?
Choose one answer.
a. Franklin Delano Roosevelt
b. Dwight Eisenhower
c. John F. Kennedy
d. Bill Clinton
.
.
Question 51
All of the following countries are members of NATO, EXCEPT:
Choose one answer.
a. Israel.
b. Czech Republic.
c. Spain.
d. Latvia.
.
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Question 52
Fill in the blank. Experts predict that by 2025, international affairs will generally be __________________.
Choose one answer.
a. Hegemonic
b. Fragmented
c. Bipolar
d. Multi-polar
.
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Question 53
If the United States were invaded by Mexico, the US could most readily seek international assistance to repel the attack by doing which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. Seeking a Security Council Resolution from the United Nations
b. Taking action pursuant to Article I, Section 8 of the Constitution
c. Invoking Article V of the North Atlantic Treaty
d. Passing a Resolution under the War Powers Act
.
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Question 54
The US has ratified all of the following treaties, EXCEPT:
Choose one answer.
a. The Hague Conventions.
b. The Geneva Conventions.
c. The Rome Statute.
d. The 1993 Chemical Weapons Convention.
.
.
Question 55
The wars in Bosnia and Kosovo were the result of which communist state breaking up?
Choose one answer.
a. Czechoslovakia
b. Yugoslavia
c. Hungary
d. Bulgaria
.
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Question 56
What provision of international law can the US use as legal justification to launch a pre-emptive military strike deemed necessary for the defense of the country?
Choose one answer.
a. Article V of the North Atlantic Treaty
b. Article I, Section 8 of the Constitution
c. The War Powers Act
d. Article 51 of the UN Charter
.
.
Question 57
Which of the following best characterizes international affairs during the Cold War era?
Choose one answer.
a. Hegemonic
b. Fragmented
c. Bipolar
d. Multi-polar
.
.
Question 58
Which of the following countries refused to join the International Criminal Court?
Choose one answer.
a. Yemen
b. Libya
c. The United States
d. All of the above
.
.
Question 59
Which of the following types of international law are considered to be of the highest authority?
Choose one answer.
a. International customs
b. Treaties
c. General principles of law recognized by civilized nations
d. Judicial decisions
.
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Question 60
What are binding, durable security agreements between two or more nations that take on the force of law called?
Choose one answer.
a. Force majeure
b. Coalitions
c. Security Resolutions
d. Alliances
.
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Question 61
A nuclear device detonated at ground level, rather than in air, would do which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. Spread blast damage and fire over a much larger area than an airburst of comparable yield
b. Result in more blast and fire damage to the affected city than a nuclear weapon detonated in the air
c. Produce a much higher level of radioactive fallout than the World War II bombs dropped at Hiroshima and Nagasaki
d. All of the above
.
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Question 62
Exposure to chemical warfare agents may occur due to all of the following, EXCEPT:
Choose one answer.
a. Replication.
b. Inhalation.
c. Digestion.
d. Direct contact.
.
.
Question 63
Fill in the blank. The most effective way to deliver and disperse a chemical or biological agent is through ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. Water
b. Explosion
c. Aerosol
d. Soil
.
.
Question 64
Fill in the blank. The primary explosive component of a nuclear weapon will be composed of either Plutonium or _________________.
Choose one answer.
a. Highly Enriched Uranium (HEU)
b. Lithium
c. Radium
d. Hydrogen
.
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Question 65
It is most difficult to detect the originating source of which type of warfare agent?
Choose one answer.
a. Radiological
b. Biological
c. Chemical
d. Nuclear
.
.
Question 66
Mailing packages and letters containing anthrax spores is considered to be what type of warfare?
Choose one answer.
a. Biological
b. Chemical
c. Radiological
d. Guerilla
.
.
Question 67
Which of the following could be used in manufacturing a biological weapon?
Choose one answer.
a. Diseases
b. Bacteria
c. Viruses
d. All of the above
.
.
Question 68
Which of the following warfare agents is the easiest to proliferate?
Choose one answer.
a. Nuclear
b. Radiological
c. Chemical
d. Biological
.
.
Question 69
Who was the first US president to renounce the use of biological weapons?
Choose one answer.
a. John F. Kennedy
b. Richard Nixon
c. Jimmy Carter
d. Ronald Reagan
.
.
Question 70
Currently, how many countries are known to possess operational nuclear weapons?
Choose one answer.
a. Five
b. Seven
c. Nine
d. Fifteen
.
.
Question 71
Fill in the blank. The majority of the population in Iraq are ______________ Muslims.
Choose one answer.
a. Shi'a
b. Sunni
c. Wahhabi
d. Sufi
.
.
Question 72
In what location are piracy prevention efforts by international naval coalitions primarily focused?
Choose one answer.
a. Gulf of Tonkin
b. Persian/Arabian Gulf
c. Gulf of Aden
d. Indian Ocean
.
.
Question 73
Most post-colonial conflicts are rooted in which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. Artificial national boundary lines created by departing colonial powers
b. Longstanding tribal conflicts
c. Competition for natural resources, food, and water
d. All of the above
.
.
Question 74
The Biden-Gelb Plan calls for which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. The partition of Iraq into three states based on ethnicity
b. The recognition of Pashtunistan as an independent nation
c. A redrawing of the Durand Line
d. All of the above
.
.
Question 75
The history of resolution of post-colonial conflicts in the late 20th Century has shown which type of settlement to be the most effective?
Choose one answer.
a. Resolutions passed and enforced by the United Nations Security Council
b. Armistice agreements enforced by NATO
c. Negotiated settlements between the warring factions
d. Military victory by one warring party over others
.
.
Question 76
What is the biggest legal challenge to defeating piracy in the 21st century?
Choose one answer.
a. Determining which law has actually been broken
b. Skirmishes between countries as to whether or not the death penalty should apply to pirates
c. Transporting and trying suspected pirates to a court of competent jurisdiction
d. Efforts by China and Russia to block UN Security Council Resolutions seeking protection for vessels
.
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Question 77
Which country has the second highest population of Shi'a Muslims in the world?
Choose one answer.
a. Indonesia
b. Pakistan
c. Iran
d. Afghanistan
.
.
Question 78
Which of the following developing countries are signatories to the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty?
Choose one answer.
a. Israel
b. Pakistan
c. India
d. North Korea
.
.
Question 79
Why has the US been hesitant to engage militarily in many sectarian and civil wars in the developing world during the past decade?
Choose one answer.
a. Because the stakes of US national security in the conflicts were deemed to be minimal
b. Because the US military would be at risk of overextension due to other existing military operations
c. Because the American public is suffering from "war fatigue" due to the engagements in Iraq and Afghanistan
d. All of the above
.
.
Question 80
Which strategic principle has resulted in operational restraint by US armed forces in post-World War II conflicts?
Choose one answer.
a. Jus ad Bellum
b. Proportionality
c. Detente
d. Reprisal
.
.
Question 81
Abu Umar al-Sayf was a Saudi-born terrorist leader killed in which country?
Choose one answer.
a. Iraq
b. Afghanistan
c. Pakistan
d. Russia
.
.
Question 82
All of the following are successful counterinsurgency practices, EXCEPT:
Choose one answer.
a. Open borders, airspace, and coastlines.
b. Effective, pervasive psychological operations (PSYOP) campaigns.
c. An expanded and diversified police force.
d. Amnesty and rehabilitation for insurgents.
.
.
Question 83
Fill in the blank. Premeditated, politically motivated violence perpetrated against noncombatant targets by subnational groups or clandestine agents, usually intended to influence an audience is called _________________.
Choose one answer.
a. Insurgency
b. Insurrection
c. Sedition
d. Terrorism
.
.
Question 84
First and foremost, a counterinsurgency strategy must ensure which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. Basic law enforcement and security of the people
b. Provision of fundamental human needs (food, shelter, and clothing)
c. Engagement of the people in democracy
d. Conditions that allow free enterprise to flourish
.
.
Question 85
Military experts cite the key reason for the failure of US counterinsurgency strategy in Vietnam as which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. The failure to increase the bombing of support bases in Laos and Cambodia
b. The failure to "take the war North" into the cities of North Vietnam
c. The failure to engage the population of the cities and villages of South Vietnam
d. Micromanagement of US military strategy by politicians
.
.
Question 86
What is the Arabic term for giving one's life in the name of Allah, i.e., martyrdom, called?
Choose one answer.
a. Istishad
b. Fatwa
c. Jihad
d. Intihar
.
.
Question 87
When did terrorism, a tactical use of violence, originate?
Choose one answer.
a. The 16th Century
b. The 18th Century
c. The 20th Century
d. Ancient Times
.
.
Question 88
Who perpetrated the 1995 terrorist attack using Sarin gas on the Tokyo subway?
Choose one answer.
a. Al Qaeda
b. Aum Shrinrikyo
c. The Red Army Faction
d. Euzkadi Ta Askatasuna
.
.
Question 89
Why, according to Rex A. Hudson, did separatist terrorist organizations in the 1970's and 1980's avoid using weapons of mass destruction?
Choose one answer.
a. Because in their operations the groups were morally opposed to killing people
b. Because in their operations the groups were morally opposed to murder except for assassinations
c. Because in their operations by killing a large number of people at once, the groups would have alienated the populations upon who they relied for material, logistical, and security support
d. Because in their operations weapons of this nature were much more rare in the world than they are today
.
.
Question 90
Which of the following best distinguishes the difference between terrorist and insurgent groups?
Choose one answer.
a. Insurgent groups fight in organized military forces, whereas terrorist groups are small cell-based.
b. Insurgent groups do not attack unarmed non-combatants, whereas terrorist groups often do target such groups.
c. Insurgent groups seek to form a new government, whereas terrorist groups typically lack a vision for governance.
d. All of the above
.
.
Question 91
Although microfinance projects have been successful in developing countries, their results have not been able to be duplicated in the US due to which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. Higher cost of living
b. Higher cost of production of goods and services
c. Greater government regulation of commerce
d. All of the above
.
.
Question 92
Critics of globalization would argue that globalization mostly has harmed the stability in developing countries by doing which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. Increasing funds given to militia
b. Increasing funds given to terrorist and insurgent groups
c. Increasing pollution of the soil, air, and water
d. Increasing the gap of economic inequity between rich and poor
.
.
Question 93
Microfinance programs seek to increase economic development through which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. Grants of food to impoverished people
b. Loans for home building
c. Economic assistance and training programs to entrepreneurs
d. Low interest savings and investment programs
.
.
Question 94
The 2002 National Security Strategy of the United States recognized which of the following as the greatest threat to national security?
Choose one answer.
a. Failing states
b. Terrorism
c. Countries seeking imperialist expansion
d. Conflict over the world's oil supply
.
.
Question 95
The largest sector of demand for petroleum in the US is for which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. Personal automobiles
b. Commercial trucks
c. Industrial manufacturing and production
d. Airline transportation
.
.
Question 96
The UN Millennium Development Goals include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Choose one answer.
a. Decreasing rates of cancer in humans.
b. Improved prenatal care.
c. Increasing the per capita income of people in poverty.
d. Increase access to clean water for drinking and sanitation.
.
.
Question 97
The under-five mortality rate for children in developing countries can be improved by which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. Parental education programs
b. Improved access to immunizations
c. Ensuring clean water for bathing, drinking, food preparation, and sewage needs
d. All of the above
.
.
Question 98
Where is the largest quantity of imported oil that the US receives from?
Choose one answer.
a. Iraq
b. Canada
c. Saudi Arabia
d. The United Arab Emirates
.
.
Question 99
Why are many impoverished countries more prone to civil wars?
Choose one answer.
a. Because of tribalism and ethnic fragmentation
b. Because they lack governance
c. Because economies dependent on primary products such as gold, diamonds, oil and coltan more easily fall into corruption and military rule
d. Because they are isolated from external influences
.
.
Question 100
Why do many scholars argue that civil wars have been more common from 1990-present than they were in earlier decades?
Choose one answer.
a. Because there is greater religious strife in the world now than previously
b. Because prior to 1990, colonial power structures and/or the systems of alliances and satellite states during the Cold War kept localized disputes in check
c. Because there is greater poverty in the world now than previously
d. Because there are a greater number of weapons in the world now than previously
.
.