The Federalist Papers were originally written to convince what audience to support the Constitution?

Choose one answer.

	a. American citizens
	b. British citizens
	c. New York citizens
	d. Attendees of the Constitutional Convention

Question 2

James Madison's well-known quote from Federalist Paper No. 51 is "ambition must be made to counteract ambition." Which of the following statements best represents what he was arguing?

Choose one answer.

	a. A president should have a strong vice president to provide advice.
	b. Our new government must have a system of checks and balances.
	c. The Senate should have 100 members.
	d. Presidents should serve a term of four years.

Question 3

According to the Anti-Federalists, which of the following aspects of the executive branch violates the principle of the separation of powers?

Choose one answer.

	a. The presidential cabinet
	b. The vice president as president of the Senate
	c. Presidential appointments
	d. The president's role as commander in chief

Question 4

Which of the following was NOT an argument Hamilton provided in favor of the Electoral College in Federalist Paper No. 68?

Choose one answer.

	a. The Electoral College is a good idea, because small states receive a disproportionately large representation.
	b. Members of the Electoral College will have more information and therefore will be more capable of selecting the president than their fellow citizens.
	c. Members of the Electoral College are more likely to select a president who is virtuous and non-corrupt than the general public.
	d. Although the public does not directly elect the president, they still indirectly choose the president by voting on the members of the Electoral College.

Question 5

Why does Hamilton argue in Federalist Paper No. 70 that it is a good idea to have a single person in the presidency, as opposed to multiple people?

Choose one answer.

	a. A single president is easier to elect.
	b. Multiple presidents would have too much power.
	c. Multiple presidents are subject to differing opinions, which is especially dangerous in times of emergency when quick action is required.
	d. Multiple presidents would be harder to convince to step down at the end of their terms.

Question 6

In Anti-Federalist Paper No. 70, what is the chief concern about the powers and term of service of the president?

Choose one answer.

	a. The term is too short for power to be wielded effectively.
	b. The term is too long for a single person to sustain the duties assigned to him as president.
	c. The term is too short, because the country will be constantly subject to presidential elections.
	d. The term is too long for someone endowed with such power to be trusted to relinquish it.

Question 7

Which of the following powers is NOT given to the president by Article II of the Constitution?

Choose one answer.

	a. The power to declare war on other nations
	b. The power to act as commander in chief of the military
	c. The power to nominate Supreme Court judges
	d. The power to nominate US ambassadors

Question 8

As chief executive, the president oversees

Choose one answer.

	a. all Pentagon activities.
	b. the federal judiciary.
	c. his party's effort to craft new legislative initiatives.
	d. the implementation of laws.

Question 9

Issuing rules, regulations, or instructions that are legally binding upon federal agencies is referred to as a(n)

Choose one answer.

	a. executive privilege.
	b. line-item veto.
	c. executive order.
	d. executive prerogative.

Question 10

What is an example of an informal role of the presidency?

Choose one answer.

	a. Chief executive
	b. Political party leader
	c. Commander in chief
	d. President pro tempore

Question 11

Which of the following is NOT a constraint on presidential power, following the typical post-election "honeymoon"?

Choose one answer.

	a. A surprisingly independent executive bureaucracy
	b. Partisan opposition in the Senate to presidential appointees
	c. Judicial review of presidential appointees
	d. A more critical media

Question 12

According to William Marshall, which of the following is NOT one of the 11 reasons that presidential power inevitably expands?

Choose one answer.

	a. Presidential nomination of Supreme Court justices
	b. The increasingly polarized two-party system
	c. The expansion of the executive branch
	d. The constitutional indeterminacy of the presidency

Question 13

During the Progressive Era, the presidency began to expand and evolve into the institution we know today. Prior to that, the presidency was very small and was subordinate to Congress. According to Thomas Woods, who was largely responsible for this change?

Choose one answer.

	a. Woodrow Wilson
	b. William McKinley
	c. Theodore Roosevelt
	d. Herbert Hoover

Question 14

Thomas Woods argues that the constitutional framework, as created by the Founding Fathers, was intended to do which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. Give the president the ability to unilaterally sign treaties with other countries
	b. Make the president the "sole organ" who was in charge of foreign affairs
	c. Give most of the responsibility over foreign policy to the legislative branch
	d. Give the president the ability to declare war without consent from Congress

Question 15

According to Sidney Milkis, what was unique about Theodore Roosevelt's presidency compared to previous presidents?

Choose one answer.

	a. He made significant contributions to the development and growth of the presidency outside of a period of polarizing conflict or war.
	b. He had military experience, meaning Congress was more willing to grant him power over foreign policy.
	c. He was not afraid of public speaking and was the first president to deliver the State of the Union address in person.
	d. He used the vice president's constitutional role as president of the Senate to his advantage.

Question 16

Foreign policy is usually developed and implemented

Choose one answer.

	a. by the president alone.
	b. by the majority party in Congress.
	c. by a large number of actors in the executive and legislative branches of government.
	d. by members of the federal government and special interest groups.

Question 17

Which of the following is NOT a way in which the president can influence foreign policy?

Choose one answer.

	a. Declaring war on a foreign country
	b. Negotiating foreign treaties and executive agreements
	c. Proposing foreign policy legislation
	d. Responding to foreign events

Question 18

Acting as the diplomatic arm of the executive branch is primarily the role of the

Choose one answer.

	a. National Security Council.
	b. Department of State.
	c. Department of Defense.
	d. Central Intelligence Agency.

Question 19

Which of the following is a traditionally important actor in the foreign policy development process?

Choose one answer.

	a. The vice president
	b. The national security advisor
	c. The White House director of communications
	d. The director of the Federal Bureau of Investigation

Question 20

Although the president can negotiate treaties with foreign countries, the Senate must ratify those treaties before they become official. This demonstrates that

Choose one answer.

	a. the legislative branch has more foreign policy power than the executive branch.
	b. US foreign policy will always be flawed because of the separation of powers and checks and balances established in the Constitution.
	c. the executive branch has more foreign policy power than the legislative branch.
	d. both the executive and legislative branches of the federal government play a role in foreign policy development.

Question 21

It is impossible to say whether the legislative or executive branch has decisive power in the creation of any given component of foreign policy, because

Choose one answer.

	a. only the Supreme Court can make this determination.
	b. it depends upon how the foreign policy process plays out for any given situation.
	c. the Constitution is ambiguous about foreign policy powers.
	d. the state department is part of both the executive and legislative branches of government.

Question 22

According to John Yoo, which of the following is a reason why the president's war powers should be considered nearly absolute?

Choose one answer.

	a. All America presidents can be trusted to use this power responsibly.
	b. Congress cannot be trusted to use this power responsibly.
	c. The Supreme Court has specifically authorized presidents to exercise this power.
	d. Congress's only constitutional check on a president's war powers is the power to control the funding of the military.

Question 23

According to the War Powers Resolution of 1973, the president can

Choose one answer.

	a. send troops into combat for up to 60 days, unless Congress votes to approve the action.
	b. send troops into combat for an unlimited amount of time, if US national security is at stake.
	c. only send troops into combat if Congress votes to approve the action.
	d. never send troops into combat without congressional approval.

Question 24

According to Alan Stolberg, why is it essential to locate "information gaps" when formulating foreign policy?

Choose one answer.

	a. If information gaps exist in a policy, then the policy is flawed.
	b. If information gaps exist in a policy, then it is essential to calculate the risk associated with those gaps.
	c. All information gaps must be closed to formulate effective foreign policy.
	d. Because all information gaps lead to assumptions, they equally decrease the legitimacy of a foreign policy.

Question 25

What element of the executive branch is best able to assess the risk-level of assumptions in foreign policy development?

Choose one answer.

	a. The president
	b. The Office of Management and Budget (OMB)
	c. The Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI)
	d. The intelligence community

Question 26

According to John Feffer, why are government institutions naturally inclined toward secrecy?

Choose one answer.

	a. All government institutions are naturally corrupt.
	b. Secrecy is the only way for government institutions to function.
	c. Secrecy lends legitimacy to government institutions.
	d. Secrecy enables power.

Question 27

What did the Foreign Intelligence Surveillance Act (FISA) of 1978 do to the executive branch's ability to gather foreign intelligence?

Choose one answer.

	a. It subjected all surveillance to the Supreme Court's oversight.
	b. It outlawed all secret surveillance.
	c. It made the practice clearly legal.
	d. It forced the executive branch to be transparent about all foreign surveillance.

Question 28

After the American Revolution, American foreign policy can best be described as

Choose one answer.

	a. interventionist.
	b. belligerent.
	c. imperialistic.
	d. isolationist.

Question 29

The primary concern that led to the Monroe doctrine was

Choose one answer.

	a. Native American attacks in the West.
	b. slave uprising in the southern states.
	c. European intervention in North America.
	d. conflict between England and France.

Question 30

What effect did the US victory in the Spanish-American War have on US foreign policy?

Choose one answer.

	a. It led to an interventionist and imperialistic foreign policy.
	b. It led to a re-emergence of US isolationist foreign policy.
	c. It caused regional insecurity that would dominate US foreign policy for over a century.
	d. It caused the US to abandon territory in the southern and western parts of North America.

Question 31

What international agreement did the US create in direct response to the Soviet Union's actions in Europe following World War II?

Choose one answer.

	a. The Treaty of Versailles
	b. The North Atlantic Treaty Organization
	c. The United Nations
	d. The League of Nations

Question 32

Which of the following is NOT a mandatory member of the National Security Council?

Choose one answer.

	a. The chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
	b. The secretary of state
	c. The vice president
	d. The director of the Central Intelligence Agency

Question 33

What agency is responsible for coordinating national security policy amongst relevant agencies of the executive branch?

Choose one answer.

	a. The Central Intelligence Agency
	b. The National Security Agency
	c. The Department of Homeland Security
	d. The Department of Defense

Question 34

What governmental institution is directly responsible for the development of the National Security Council?

Choose one answer.

	a. Congress
	b. The Supreme Court
	c. The Central Intelligence Agency
	d. The Department of Homeland Security

Question 35

The primary communication link between the National Security Council and the president is

Choose one answer.

	a. the vice president.
	b. the chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff.
	c. the national security advisor.
	d. the director of central intelligence.

Question 36

What recent historical development has had a major impact upon the State Department's approach to diplomacy and foreign policy?

Choose one answer.

	a. The rise of China
	b. The end of the Cold War
	c. The war on terror
	d. The advent of globalization and interdependence

Question 37

Which of the following is NOT a reason why the executive branch first engages in diplomacy before considering military options?

Choose one answer.

	a. Diplomacy is the least costly option.
	b. Diplomacy is always the most effective option to prevent conflict.
	c. Diplomacy is usually more strategically viable than military options.
	d. Engaging in diplomacy with the hopes of preventing conflict adheres to US values.

Question 38

Glenn Greenwald claims that President Obama engaged in action that candidate Obama claimed was unconstitutional when he was running for office. What action represents this contradiction?

Choose one answer.

	a. The removal of combat troops from Iraq
	b. Setting a deadline for the removal of combat troops from Afghanistan
	c. Entering into a military conflict in Libya
	d. Using torture as an intelligence-gathering tool

Question 39

Which of the following was NOT a major foreign and national security policy of President Barack Obama?

Choose one answer.

	a. An increased military presence in the Middle East
	b. The New START Treaty with Russia
	c. Ending the war in Iraq
	d. Unprecedented economic sanctions on Iran

Question 40

Why does Jeffrey Engel claim that President George H. W. Bush was, for a time, the most powerful person in world history?

Choose one answer.

	a. He consolidated domestic national security power more than any previous president.
	b. He vastly increased the budget for the US military.
	c. The US was immensely more powerful at the end of the Cold War.
	d. Congress gave President George H. W. Bush more power than any other president.

Question 41

President John F. Kennedy's management of the Cuban Missile Crisis can best be described as

Choose one answer.

	a. a catastrophic failure, due to incompetent leadership.
	b. a demonstration of the weakness of the presidency relative to military commanders.
	c. a successful example of strategic diplomacy from a position of strength.
	d. a demonstration of the impotence of strategic diplomacy.

Question 42

Why did the Supreme Court rule that the line-item veto was unconstitutional?

Choose one answer.

	a. It is not an implied power of the executive branch.
	b. It violates the separation of powers.
	c. It gives the president too little power over legislative policy.
	d. It impinges upon the Supreme Court's judicial review power.

Question 43

By virtue of its constitutional authority to make laws and appropriate money, Congress is empowered to review the departments and agencies of the executive branch. This is referred to as

Choose one answer.

	a. congressional investigation.
	b. impounding funds.
	c. congressional oversight.
	d. the legislative veto.

Question 44

David Mayhew makes what argument about the electoral bases for the House, Senate, and presidency?

Choose one answer.

	a. The different constituencies have gridlocked Washington, DC, to the point of getting nothing done.
	b. The results of elections across each constituency are actually similar, which facilitates the passage of legislation.
	c. The representation in the Senate is a violation of the Supreme Court's "one person, one vote" doctrine, unlike the House.
	d. It is rare that the House, Senate, and president all agree on policy, because they have different constituencies, which is also why the Supreme Court nomination process takes so long.

Question 45

According to David Mayhew, what do Americans think about our representation system when it comes to the House, the Senate, and the presidency?

Choose one answer.

	a. There is little support for constitutional reform when it comes to representation.
	b. A majority of Americans highly support abolishing the Senate and replacing it with another House of Representatives.
	c. A majority of Americans would prefer if members of Congress would elect the president from within the Senate or the House.
	d. Most Americans are tired of partisan politics and would prefer if a third party won the presidency.

Question 46

Which of the following is a lesson that can be taken from Sheryl Gay Stolberg's talk on the president and Congress?

Choose one answer.

	a. Presidents have no problem convincing members of their own party to support them.
	b. Just because the president and the majority in Congress are of the same party does not mean Congress will always support the president's initiatives.
	c. Presidents should not try to establish friendships with members of Congress, as doing so puts presidents at risk of political betrayal.
	d. Congress defers to the president on Supreme Court nominees regardless of their constitutional obligation to provide "advice and consent."

Question 47

According to the Constitution, what is the role of the Senate in appointing members of the Supreme Court?

Choose one answer.

	a. To vote on the president's nominees, providing 60 "yes" votes to overcome any potential filibuster
	b. To provide advice and consent to the president
	c. To take a vote in the judiciary committee followed by a vote on the floor for the president's nominees
	d. The Senate can select its own nominee if a majority does not like the president's nominee

Question 48

Why are recess appointments so often controversial?

Choose one answer.

	a. It involves congressional appointment of a nominee, without presidential involvement.
	b. It involves tension between the Senate and the president because both must approve of a nominee.
	c. It allows the Senate to approve of a nominee during a congressional recess, without the advice and consent of the House of Representatives.
	d. It allows the president to appoint a nominee during a congressional recess, without the advice and consent of the Senate.

Question 49

Who was the last president to use a recess appointment to the Supreme Court?

Choose one answer.

	a. William Clinton
	b. George W. Bush
	c. Gerald Ford
	d. Dwight Eisenhower

Question 50

If the president creates a trade agreement with a foreign nation without going through the process of senatorial ratification, this is referred to as

Choose one answer.

	a. a presidential order.
	b. a gentleman's agreement.
	c. an executive order.
	d. an executive agreement.

Question 51

Upon what principle is executive privilege based?

Choose one answer.

	a. The principle of limited government
	b. The principle of the separation of powers
	c. The principle of transparency
	d. The principle of congressional oversight

Question 52

How have disputes over executive privilege historically been resolved?

Choose one answer.

	a. By the Supreme Court
	b. By the executive branch eventually turning over the evidence requested by Congress
	c. By Congress eventually withdrawing its request for the evidence
	d. By some compromise between the executive branch and Congress

Question 53

After September 11th, 2001, what led to reconsidering congressional oversight of the intelligence community?

Choose one answer.

	a. The foreign-domestic divide in intelligence gathering
	b. The Patriot Act
	c. The authorized use of torture by the intelligence community
	d. The creation of the Department of Homeland Security

Question 54

Which of the following arguments does Dr. Jeffrey Tulis make about impeachment in the Constitution?

Choose one answer.

	a. Impeachment is an important component of our separation of powers system.
	b. Impeachment is unconstitutional.
	c. The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court should not be responsible for presiding over the president's impeachment trial.
	d. Impeachments have been overused in our history.

Question 55

President Obama pushed for policy changes after the British Petroleum oil spill in the Gulf of Mexico; whereas, President George H.W. Bush was able to quell the push for policy changes after the Exxon oil spill at Valdez. What power was each president utilizing?

Choose one answer.

	a. Chief executive powers
	b. Legislative powers
	c. Agenda-setting powers
	d. Implied constitutional powers

Question 56

Which of the following is NOT one of the six factors identified by Charles Jones as those that affect the access to the policy agenda?

Choose one answer.

	a. The resources available
	b. The number of citizens affected
	c. The power of the agenda-setter
	d. The intensity of the issue

Question 57

Franklin Delano Roosevelt's primary domestic policy agenda during the first 100 days of his presidency involved

Choose one answer.

	a. saving US capitalism from collapse.
	b. revitalizing the US military.
	c. pushing Congress and the Supreme Court to end segregation.
	d. supporting the labor movement in an effort to increase wages and working conditions.

Question 58

Lyndon B. Johnson's "Great Society" agenda emphasized all of the follow, EXCEPT

Choose one answer.

	a. ending poverty.
	b. racial justice.
	c. consumer protection.
	d. gender equality.

Question 59

President Ronald Reagan's primary domestic objective was to

Choose one answer.

	a. protect the environment from damaging resource gathering.
	b. reduce the size of the federal government.
	c. sustain the civil rights progress made in previous administrations.
	d. overturn Roe v. Wade.

Question 60

President Barack Obama's push for an economic stimulus package at the beginning of his first term included all of the following, EXCEPT

Choose one answer.

	a. aid to state governments.
	b. the creation of new public sector jobs.
	c. middle-class tax cuts.
	d. investment in infrastructure.

Question 61

In the Supreme Court case Humphrey's Executor v. United States (1935), which of the following best represents the court's decision?

Choose one answer.

	a. The president can fire whomever he wants, whenever he wants.
	b. The president is commander in chief and has a right to blockade ports as a method of waging war.
	c. The court was wrong in its decision in Myers v. United States (1926), and in this case decided that the president should not be allowed to fire anyone.
	d. The president can fire some members of the executive branch but cannot fire workers in quasi-legislative positions.

Question 62

The Supreme Court ruled in Youngstown Sheet and Tube Co. v. Sawyer (1952) that President Truman

Choose one answer.

	a. was correct to fire the city of Youngstown's steel mill workers.
	b. exceeded his executive power by trying to seize the steel companies.
	c. should have created an executive agency to regulate the steel mills.
	d. asked too much of steel workers during World War II.

Question 63

The Supreme Court's ruling in INS v. Chadha (1983) established which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. The president does not have the right to fire the head of the INS.
	b. The legislative veto is unconstitutional.
	c. Enemy combatants at Guantanamo Bay are entitled to due process.
	d. Presidents cannot use the line-item veto, because it is unconstitutional.

Question 64

In the Supreme Court case Clinton v. City of New York (1998), which of the following best describes the court's decision?

Choose one answer.

	a. President Clinton's use of the line-item veto was unconstitutional.
	b. Having an independent counsel to investigate the executive branch did not violate the separation of powers.
	c. Sitting presidents are not immune from civil suits.
	d. The legislative veto is unconstitutional.

Question 65

In the Supreme Court case United States v. Curtiss-Wright Export Corp. (1936), the Supreme Court ruled that the president has "plenary" powers. What does this mean?

Choose one answer.

	a. The president has the power to conduct foreign affairs on behalf of the United States.
	b. The president has the power to fire members of the executive branch.
	c. The president has the power to appoint Supreme Court justices.
	d. The president must be deferent to Congress in establishing foreign policy during times of war.

Question 66

Which of the following cases did NOT expand the president's powers during wartime?

Choose one answer.

	a. Prize Cases (1863)
	b. United States v. Curtiss-Wright Export Corp. (1936)
	c. Dames and Moore v. Regan (1981)
	d. Hamdan v. Rumsfeld (2006)

Question 67

In the Prize Cases (1863), the Supreme Court ruled that President Lincoln

Choose one answer.

	a. unconstitutionally suspended habeas corpus.
	b. could take over the courts to try Southerners as necessary.
	c. had the right to blockade southern ports as commander in chief.
	d. should declare war on the South.

Question 68

In Korematsu v. United States (1944), what was the Supreme Court ruling?

Choose one answer.

	a. Japanese-Americans should all be freed immediately from World War II internment camps.
	b. Internment camps are unconstitutional.
	c. The need to prevent espionage was more important than the civil rights of the Japanese-Americans who were interned during the war.
	d. President Roosevelt violated habeas corpus by interning Japanese-Americans.

Question 69

In the case United States v. Nixon (1974), which of the following best describes the Supreme Court's ruling?

Choose one answer.

	a. Sitting presidents can be held liable for civil suits while in office.
	b. The actions of the president surrounding the Watergate scandal were unconstitutional, and therefore, President Nixon had to resign immediately.
	c. Although executive privilege exists, it did not apply to the Watergate tapes.
	d. President Nixon's use of the line-item veto was unconstitutional.

Question 70

In the Supreme Court case Myers v. United States (1926), the court ruled on the president's removal power of government employees. Which of the following best sums up the opinion?

Choose one answer.

	a. The president has to consult Congress before firing postmasters.
	b. The president has the implicit power to fire people without congressional consent.
	c. Presidential decisions to fire government employees should be subjected to a vote in Congress.
	d. Presidents should no longer be allowed to appoint or fire postmasters.

Question 71

How did the Supreme Court decisions in the Guantanamo Bay cases (Rasul v. Bush, Hamdi v. Rumsfeld, Hamdan v. Rumsfeld, Boumediene v. Bush) create a setback for President George W. Bush?

Choose one answer.

	a. President Bush was attempting to free the prisoners, but the court did not allow it.
	b. The court ruled that Secretary Rumsfeld should no longer be the secretary of defense.
	c. The court ruled that the war in Iraq was unconstitutional.
	d. The court issued a number of opinions striking down the administration's policies regarding the rights of enemy combatants.

Question 72

Which of the following best describes the role of political parties in presidential appointments of federal judges?

Choose one answer.

	a. Presidents almost always appoint federal judges of the same party orientation.
	b. Judges rarely identify their political party affiliation, to avoid the appearance of bias.
	c. Presidents try to appoint an equal number of judges from their own party and the opposition party.
	d. The Supreme Court has ruled that it is unconstitutional to consider political party affiliations when nominating federal judges.

Question 73

According to Richard Vining and Anthony Madonna, why are presidents hesitant to engage in a confirmation battle over Supreme Court nominees?

Choose one answer.

	a. Presidents are not ideologically motivated.
	b. Presidents often trade easy confirmations for other legislation that they want made into law.
	c. Presidents recognize that long confirmation battles decrease the time and capital for other desired legislation.
	d. Presidents usually lose the public perception fight in a Supreme Court confirmation struggle with Congress.

Question 74

The expansion of many executive agencies and departments can be directly attributed to what formal power of the presidency?

Choose one answer.

	a. Signing statements
	b. The veto
	c. Executive agreements
	d. Executive orders

Question 75

Along with his signature on legislation passed by Congress, a president sometimes issues a statement about how he will interpret, and therefore enforce, the law. This is referred to as

Choose one answer.

	a. an executive order.
	b. an executive agreement.
	c. a signing statement.
	d. a statement of reservation.

Question 76

What is one major difference between modern vice presidents and the 19th-century vice presidents?

Choose one answer.

	a. Modern vice presidents actually have a chance at becoming president if the president dies.
	b. Modern vice presidents are sometimes of a different party than the president.
	c. Modern vice presidents have offices in the Capitol building, as opposed to their predecessors who were housed in the White House.
	d. Modern vice presidents rarely are involved with the Senate, while early vice presidents were more directly involved.

Question 77

During several time periods in American history, the role of the vice presidency expanded due to historical circumstances. Which of the following was NOT one of these times?

Choose one answer.

	a. World War I
	b. The New Deal and Great Depression
	c. The post-September 11th era
	d. The Industrial Revolution

Question 78

How are cabinet agencies created?

Choose one answer.

	a. They are established through an executive order by the president.
	b. They are created by Congress.
	c. They are created through approval of all existing cabinet members.
	d. The president can create them without official action, creating a new agency and appointing a leader, who will then appoint his or her subordinates.

Question 79

Sometimes, cabinet secretaries engage in what is known as "going native." What is this practice?

Choose one answer.

	a. Cabinet secretaries, once appointed to office, spend too much time in their home states.
	b. Cabinet secretaries put departmental goals ahead of the president's goals.
	c. In order to prove loyalty to the president, the secretary will fail to prioritize the department's main goals and will focus too much on the president's agenda.
	d. Cabinet secretaries resign and retire after a short period in office, since running a cabinet agency can be too overwhelming, and individuals can only do the job effectively for a short time.

Question 80

In which of the following White House management models does the chief of staff tend to have the most power?

Choose one answer.

	a. The hub-and-spoke model
	b. A circular structure
	c. The pyramid model
	d. An ad hoc structure

Question 81

Besides creating the budget, what is another main purpose of the Office of Management and Budget?

Choose one answer.

	a. To create the president's schedule
	b. To review proposed regulations from various areas of the executive branch
	c. To manage the president's White House staff
	d. To appropriate funds to various executive agencies after their budgets are approved

Question 82

The Food and Drug Administration and Environmental Protection Agency are examples of which type of institution?

Choose one answer.

	a. Executive agency
	b. Regulatory agency
	c. Government corporations
	d. White House office

Question 83

Federal regulations can be overturned through which of the following procedures?

Choose one answer.

	a. An executive order
	b. A court ruling
	c. A retraction of the rule by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB)
	d. The implementation of a counter-rule by a different regulatory agency

Question 84

What are agencies that conduct business or produce products for the nation known as?

Choose one answer.

	a. Government corporations
	b. Independent executive agencies
	c. Regulatory agencies
	d. Cabinet agencies

Question 85

If there is a tie in the Electoral College during a presidential election, how is the winner determined?

Choose one answer.

	a. There is a run-off election, and the winner is based on the popular vote.
	b. The state legislatures replace the current Electoral College members with new members.
	c. The nine justices on the Supreme Court vote.
	d. The House of Representatives votes.

Question 86

Why did many delegates to the Constitutional Convention favor the use of an Electoral College to select the president?

Choose one answer.

	a. They thought the general public lacked the knowledge necessary to make the right decision about who should become president.
	b. They were interested in serving on the Electoral College themselves.
	c. They wanted to ensure the president was always selected in Philadelphia, which is where the Constitutional Convention was held.
	d. There were concerns that the British would interfere with popular elections.

Question 87

In the 2000 presidential election between George W. Bush and Al Gore, what role did the Electoral College system play?

Choose one answer.

	a. It gave the presidency to George W. Bush because some electors voted contrary to their respective state's popular vote.
	b. It never has and probably never will play a role in the outcome of an election.
	c. It gave the presidency to George W. Bush, despite the fact that he lost the overall popular vote.
	d. It gave the presidency to George W. Bush because of the disproportionate influence that the larger states have over the smaller states.

Question 88

Independents and third-party members running for the presidency face some major challenges in our political system. Which of the following is NOT one of the challenges they face?

Choose one answer.

	a. Members of the Electoral College are required to vote for one of the two major party candidates.
	b. States each have different requirements to get on the ballot.
	c. Independents and third parties have to gain a certain amount of support to get on the ballot in many states.
	d. The winner-take-all system that most states have for assigning their electors is detrimental to third parties.

Question 89

Which of the following describes what happens during a closed primary?

Choose one answer.

	a. Only registered party members are allowed to vote.
	b. Any person is allowed to vote so long as they are registered with either party.
	c. Primary voters are limited to those who worked on campaigns.
	d. Candidates are all listed on a single ballot, regardless of which party they belong to.

Question 90

Which of the following explains why states have shifted away from caucuses and toward primaries?

Choose one answer.

	a. Caucuses are more expensive than primaries.
	b. Caucuses are too tightly controlled by party elites, causing support to shift to primaries.
	c. Third-party candidates are becoming more viable under the caucus system.
	d. Closed primaries produce more extreme candidates, which states prefer.

Question 91

Which of the following is NOT an advantage presidents have in trying to gain reelection?

Choose one answer.

	a. They often have better name recognition than their opponents.
	b. They often gain momentum leading up to the elections by going through their party's primaries.
	c. Presidents essentially have free publicity that comes with the office.
	d. Presidents have the opportunity to claim credit for positive legislation that happened during their previous term.

Question 92

Voters in the 2008 election were most concerned about which of the following issues?

Choose one answer.

	a. Gay marriage
	b. The wars in Iraq and Afghanistan
	c. Education reform
	d. The economy

Question 93

According to Richard Neustadt's famous argument, presidential power comes from the president's power to do which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. Keep his public approval numbers up
	b. Go public
	c. Use his personality to his advantage
	d. Persuade others to do what he wants

Question 94

Why does Neustadt argue that the president's professional reputation is so important?

Choose one answer.

	a. Professional reputation directly affects how the public views the president.
	b. Professional reputation affects how others will anticipate and react to the president, putting him in either a weak position or a strong position to begin with when bargaining.
	c. Presidents with a strong professional reputation have a hard time convincing others, because they are so intimidated by him.
	d. None of these choices

Question 95

Why is understanding presidential leadership styles and effectiveness essential in an explanation of presidential success?

Choose one answer.

	a. Most presidents have similar institutional power, but vary widely on how effectively they wield that power.
	b. Success is generally measured by style and not substance.
	c. Institutional power varies so widely among presidents that the only way to measure their success is through a common variable, such as leadership style.
	d. Leadership style is usually why a president is elected in the first place.

Question 96

When is a president's "power to persuade" highest?

Choose one answer.

	a. When his party holds a majority in Congress
	b. When he has the highest public approval
	c. When he and his vice president are united on policy issues
	d. When he has been in office for several years

Question 97

James David Barber argues that the success of the president can be predicted based upon

Choose one answer.

	a. his experience working with members of Congress.
	b. whether he is a Washington insider or outsider.
	c. psychological factors.
	d. his professional reputation.

Question 98

The "active" and "passive" characteristics Barber categorizes refer to which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. The enjoyment the president gets from the job and from political life
	b. How the president interacts with other Washingtonians
	c. How much energy presidents invest into their job
	d. The way the public views the president's energy level

Question 99

According to James David Barber, Presidents Roosevelt and Truman were which type of president?

Choose one answer.

	a. Passive-positive
	b. Passive-negative
	c. Active-negative
	d. Active-positive

Question 100

Why is presidential rhetoric so important in determining whether a president will be successful?

Choose one answer.

	a. A president's power to persuade the public can change political and institutional dynamics.
	b. Most people respond to style over substance.
	c. Rhetoric allows a president to distort reality.
	d. The opposing political party might respond to an eloquent speech.