1
According to C. Wright Mills and Floyd Hunter’s power elite theory, what is the general outcome of the policy process in the United States?
Choose one answer.
a. Public policies distribute policy widely but unequally.
b. Policies are established that reflect the interests of the elite rather than the demands of the masses.
c. Public policies reflect the will of the people because of elections.
d. Public policy is the result of competition among interest groups, and this competition is so persistent that no one group can persist for a long period of time and exert disproportionate influence on policy.
e. None of the above
.
.
Question 2
According to Dr. Catherine Smith, what is “the logical first move in a policy process”?
Choose one answer.
a. Marshaling public support
b. Formulating policy alternatives
c. Defining the problem
d. Lobbying Congress to take action on an issue
e. None of the above
.
.
Question 3
According to the stages model of the public-policy process, what is the first stage of the policy-making process?
Choose one answer.
a. Crafting of bills in congressional committees
b. Setting the agenda
c. Having public debate about different policy options to address an issue
d. Analyzing the various costs and benefits of specific policies
e. None of the above
.
.
Question 4
According to thisnation.com, what has been described as “a means toward a host of public and social policy ends”?
Choose one answer.
a. Congressional action
b. The judicial branch
c. Bureaucracy
d. Public-private partnerships
e. None of the above
.
.
Question 5
According to William D. Coplin and Michael K. O’Leary, what is the purpose of public policy?
Choose one answer.
a. To justify the role of government in society
b. To solve problems affecting people in society
c. To help citizens prosper and achieve their goals
d. None of the above
e. All of the above
.
.
Question 6
Based on his arguments in “Federalist 10,” which of the following accurately characterizes James Madison’s (“Publius’s”) feelings with regard to the Constitution?
Choose one answer.
a. Madison opposed the Constitution as it was written.
b. Madison distrusted a unitary executive.
c. Madison believed that a country with a strong federal government was better to guard against narrow factions than a country dominated by small state governments.
d. Madison favored proportional representation in the legislature.
e. None of the above
.
.
Question 7
In the context of the creation of the United States Constitution, what is the best definition of the word “republican”?
Choose one answer.
a. A conservative approach to government.
b. A system of government in which each citizen directly votes on each potential policy.
c. More powerful state governments and a weak federal government.
d. A system of government in which citizens are represented by elected officials.
e. None of the above
.
.
Question 8
In “Federalist 51,” Madison (writing as “Publius”) uses the phrase “ambition must be made to counteract ambition.” To which constitutional principle does this refer?
Choose one answer.
a. The separation of powers among different branches of government
b. The system of elected representation
c. A meritocratic civil service
d. Term limits for elected officials
e. None of the above
.
.
Question 9
In “Federalist 78,” how did Alexander Hamilton (writing as “Publius”) view the role of the judicial branch?
Choose one answer.
a. It was the branch of government least dangerous to individual rights.
b. It would bring judgment and discretion to government.
c. It would prevent intrusion on the rights of minorities.
d. Its independence would be best preserved by permanent tenure for justices.
e. All of the above
.
.
Question 10
James Madison (writing under the name “Publius”) addresses what issue in “Federalist 10”?
Choose one answer.
a. The importance of the unitary executive with regard to policy implementation by administrative agencies.
b. The challenges to governing and policy-making presented by political parties (“the mischiefs of faction”).
c. The importance of a formalized, meritocratic bureaucracy to implement policies.
d. The role of a bicameral legislature in fairly creating public policies.
e. All of the above
.
.
Question 11
The public-policy process includes which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. Choosing which problems to solve
b. Deciding on and between solutions
c. Deciding what is and is not a problem
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
.
.
Question 12
The U.S. Postal Service, the Corporation for Public Broadcasting, AMTRAK, and the FDIC are all examples of what?
Choose one answer.
a. Government corporations
b. Independent government agencies
c. Public-private partnerships
d. Nonbureaucratic government organizations
e. None of the above
.
.
Question 13
What issues are captured by the term “market failure”?
Choose one answer.
a. Prices are decoupled with supply and demand.
b. A public good (for example, infrastructure) is under-provided.
c. Commons are misused.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
.
.
Question 14
Which contemporary aspect of governance in the United States did the Federalists fail to anticipate?
Choose one answer.
a. The growth of the governmental agenda
b. The development of the modern administrative state
c. Rapid developments in technology
d. Globalization
e. All of the above
.
.
Question 15
Which of the following is a key feature of federalist design?
Choose one answer.
a. The design of government does not rest on one feature, but on a relationship among a group of principles and actions.
b. Having regular elections to make representatives accountable to diverse interests.
c. Power should be divided between the states and the federal government, as well as among different branches of the federal government.
d. Limits to authority
e. All of the above
.
.
Question 16
Which of the following is an assumption of pluralism?
Choose one answer.
a. Consensus is possible.
b. Experts are unbiased.
c. All potential interests have the equal capacity to organize and mobilize.
d. Markets are the best way to provide public goods.
e. Elites are benevolent and unbiased.
.
.
Question 17
Which of the following is not considered a part of the federal bureaucracy?
Choose one answer.
a. Government corporations
b. Congressional committees
c. Independent regulatory commissions
d. Independent agencies
e. Executive departments
.
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Question 18
Which of the following is one of Kelman’s critiques of the federalist design of government?
Choose one answer.
a. The path to making policy is too direct and does not provide adequate checks and balances.
b. Federalist institutions are good for protecting against negative liberties, but less good at providing positive liberties.
c. The federalist design erroneously relies on the altruism of elected officials to produce good policy.
d. None of the above
e. All of the above
.
.
Question 19
Which of the following refers to an individual who does not contribute to or participate in a group, but nonetheless benefits from the existence and activities of the group?
Choose one answer.
a. Noncitizen
b. Layman
c. Lobbyist
d. Free rider
e. None of the above
.
.
Question 20
Which of the following statements accurately describes the legislative process in the United States?
Choose one answer.
a. It is easier to pass a bill than to kill a bill.
b. It can be long, tedious, complicated, and frustrating.
c. It features specialized but overlapping committees that play an important role in the passage of a bill.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
.
.
Question 21
Which of the following was not a key feature of “The Federalist Papers”?
Choose one answer.
a. Efforts to secure private liberties and the public good by controlling “the mischiefs of faction”
b. Discussions of how best to design of system of direct democracy
c. Efforts to design a system of divided powers
d. Debates about how to address the shortcomings of “pure democracy”
e. Concerns with protecting both national interests and local interests
.
.
Question 22
According to Dr. Wayne Hayes, negotiation, bargaining, compromise, and coalition formation are key political processes of which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. Checks and balances
b. Majority building
c. Agenda setting
d. Federalism
e. None of the above
.
.
Question 23
According to Dr. Wayne Hayes, what factors do political scientists believe account for why public policy is narrow in scope, produces mainly minor adjustments to past practices, and seems to work for the benefit of established interests?
Choose one answer.
a. Iron triangles
b. Sub-governments
c. Interest-group liberalism
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
.
.
Question 24
According to Dr. Wayne Hayes, what is a critique common to both the rational-scientific and institutional approaches to public-policy making?
Choose one answer.
a. Both incorrectly view public policy as a process that proceeds in discreet stages.
b. Neither takes into account the importance of agenda setting.
c. Both ignore the decision-making role of independent agencies during policy implementation.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
.
.
Question 25
Higher-density development, investments in alternatives to solo driving, and pricing policies proposed by Senate Bill 375 in California are government actions intended to address what issue?
Choose one answer.
a. Reducing vehicle miles traveled in California
b. Reducing greenhouse gas emissions in California
c. Reducing traffic density
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
.
.
Question 26
The development of effective and acceptable courses of action for addressing what has been placed on the policy agenda is known as which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. The policy process
b. Agenda setting
c. Policy formulation
d. The policy cycle
e. None of the above
.
.
Question 27
The role of Vice President Cheney’s energy task force in formulating energy policy during the Bush administration presents a challenge for which approach to understanding the policy process?
Choose one answer.
a. C. Wright Mills’ concept of the power elite
b. Pluralism
c. Rational-scientific policy-making
d. The cycle approach
e. None of the above
.
.
Question 28
What does E. J. Dionne argue in his book “Why Americans Hate Politics”?
Choose one answer.
a. The Constitution provides a cumbersome and inefficient way to implement a system of governance.
b. Given the power of organized elites, pluralism is not a useful way to understand the policy process in the United States.
c. The contemporary debate between conservatism and liberalism has produced a false choice between doctrines that fail.
d. Quantitative indicators of performance can sometimes be misleading.
e. None of the above
.
.
Question 29
What might be an example of a market failure with regard to AIDS as a public health issue?
Choose one answer.
a. Few incentives for private sector investment, despite urgent need.
b. The failure of individuals who make up populations susceptible to contracting AIDS to change their behavior.
c. Interest-group advocacy with regard to AIDS.
d. Free, government-funded clinics for AIDS patients.
e. None of the above
.
.
Question 30
What role do land-use policies play in efforts to reduce greenhouse gas emissions in California?
Choose one answer.
a. Densely populated areas are more amenable to public transit, which produces fewer emissions.
b. Densely populated areas offer closer proximity to jobs and housing for individuals, reducing vehicle miles traveled.
c. Land use policies have a statistically significant effect on an individual’s decision to drive.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
.
.
Question 31
Which of the following is an accurate characterization of incrementalism?
Choose one answer.
a. “Incrementalism” describes the process by which policy makers “muddle through.”
b. The concept of incrementalism stands in contrast to the rational-comprehensive model of policy planning.
c. Incrementalism is associated with the micropolitical agenda rather than the macropolitical agenda.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
.
.
Question 32
Which of the following is an accurate characterization of satisficing?
Choose one answer.
a. “Satisficing” is another term for goal maximizing.
b. Satisficing is the criterion of slight improvement as compared with past performance.
c. Satisficing is a method of data analysis.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
.
.
Question 33
Which of the following is not an important aspect of policy analysis?
Choose one answer.
a. Specialized training
b. Bargaining and compromise
c. Conceptualized models
d. Data analysis
e. Strong theoretical grasp of an issue
.
.
Question 34
Which of the following is true with regard to state and local governments?
Choose one answer.
a. State and local governments often implement and finance federal policies.
b. State and local governments are considered more accessible to individual citizens than the national government.
c. State and local governments have considerable power in any area of governance that is not delegated to the national government or forbidden by the constitution.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
.
.
Question 35
Which of the following represents a way in which the government might take action to address the oil consumption of SUVs?
Choose one answer.
a. Laws and rules
b. Abstaining from action and leaving the issue to the market
c. Taxes
d. Providing information
e. All of the above
.
.
Question 36
Which value with regard to policy making is explicitly not embedded in the Constitution’s design of the policy-making process in the United States?
Choose one answer.
a. Separation of powers
b. Individual freedom
c. Efficiency
d. Federalism
e. Checks and balances
.
.
Question 37
With regard to California’s climate change and transportation policy, at what stage of the policy process was the California Air Resources Board when the Public Policy Institute of California released its “Driving Change” report?
Choose one answer.
a. Agenda setting
b. Implementation
c. Policy evaluation
d. Policy formulation
e. None of the above
.
.
Question 38
According to the Khan Academy, which of the following would result if the United States defaulted on its national debt?
Choose one answer.
a. The federal government would be unable to continue to fund a variety of services, including Social Security, Medicare, and national defense.
b. The interest rates on money loaned to the federal government would increase.
c. The credit rating of the federal government would be downgraded.
d. The national debt would increase.
e. All of the above
.
.
Question 39
For what reasons might a federal agency assigned to administer a policy play a role in shaping that policy?
Choose one answer.
a. Agency participation in policy formulation is explicitly mandated by the Constitution.
b. The policy, as written, might fail to articulate precise and operational goals, objectives, and procedures.
c. Some policies, especially those that address technical or regulatory issues, might give broad power to implementing agencies.
d. None of the above
e. Both B and C
.
.
Question 40
What does the concept of “goal displacement” refer to?
Choose one answer.
a. When a policy changes, a bureaucratic organization is given new implementation directives.
b. When a bureaucratic organization grows more concerned with its own resources and survival than fulfilling its mission.
c. Bureaucratic reform efforts
d. The process of crafting an organization’s mission
e. None of the above
.
.
Question 41
What has been described as “public intentions with a price tag attached”?
Choose one answer.
a. The federal budget
b. Electoral outcomes
c. Constitutional principles
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
.
.
Question 42
What was Woodrow Wilson’s main contention with regard to government bureaucracy?
Choose one answer.
a. The public should play a role in determining how policies are implemented.
b. The “mischiefs of faction” should not be allowed to influence policy implementation.
c. Policy making should be kept separate from administration.
d. Civil servants should be able to pass on their posts to their children.
e. None of the above
.
.
Question 43
Which federal organization might be described as “the nerve center of the budgetary process”?
Choose one answer.
a. The Treasury Department
b. The Congressional Budget Office
c. The Federal Reserve
d. The Office of Management and Budget
e. None of the above
.
.
Question 44
Which of the following can influence policy implementation?
Choose one answer.
a. How a policy is designed
b. The characteristics of the institutions established to, or intended to, carry out the policy
c. The power of outside actors with a vested interest in the policy
d. Both B and C
e. All of the above
.
.
Question 45
Which of the following constitutes a method of formal evaluation?
Choose one answer.
a. Legislative oversight
b. Presidential commissions
c. Interest-group intervention
d. Interrupted time-series analysis
e. None of the above
.
.
Question 46
Which of the following describes the role of incrementalism in the budgetary process?
Choose one answer.
a. Incrementalism is a practical way of dealing with the very complex task of budgeting.
b. Incrementalism begins with the previous year’s budget.
c. Incremental budgeting reinforces the existing equilibrium of political forces.
d. Incrementalism averts destabilizing conflict.
e. All of the above
.
.
Question 47
Which of the following gave rise to the study of policy evaluation.
Choose one answer.
a. Franklin D. Roosevelt’s New Deal
b. The Vietnam War
c. Lyndon B. Johnson’s Great Society programs
d. NASA’s space program
e. None of the above
.
.
Question 48
Which of the following is an important distinction between federal and state budgets.
Choose one answer.
a. The federal budget is divided into operational costs and capital costs.
b. Federal budgets may run deficits, while state budgets may not.
c. Federal taxes only fund the federal budget.
d. None of the above
e. All of the above
.
.
Question 49
Which of the following is not an element of bureaucracy according to Max Weber?
Choose one answer.
a. Span of control
b. Functional specialization
c. Informed discretion
d. Hierarchy
e. Presumed impartiality
.
.
Question 50
With regard to the federal budget, which of the following constitutes discretionary spending?
Choose one answer.
a. National defense
b. Social security
c. Medicare
d. Interest payments
e. All of the above
.
.
Question 51
Tariffs, subsidies, and quotas are tools of what kind of policy?
Choose one answer.
a. Fiscal Policy
b. Monetary policy
c. Trade policy
d. Domestic policy
e. None of the above
.
.
Question 52
What issues are captured by the concept of the “two-level game?”
Choose one answer.
a. The interplay between fiscal policy and monetary policy
b. Trade policy must be formulated to take into account international interests as well as domestic interests.
c. The regulation of both national-level and state-level banks
d. Domestic policy
e. Debates regarding the progressive income tax
.
.
Question 53
What makes the Federal Reserve independent?
Choose one answer.
a. Members of the Federal Reserve Board of Governors serve 14-year terms and their appointments are staggered, thus no one president can have too much influence.
b. The Fed’s operating budget comes from income earned from the securities it holds, not from Congress.
c. Each Reserve Bank president is appointed by that bank’s board of directors.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
.
.
Question 54
Which of the following is a goal of U.S. monetary policy?
Choose one answer.
a. Full employment
b. Stable prices
c. Short-term job growth
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
.
.
Question 55
Which of the following is a limit of monetary policy?
Choose one answer.
a. Monetary policy is linked to national credit markets, and thus cannot stimulate a specific part of the country that might be in economic trouble.
b. Monetary policy cannot address inflation.
c. Monetary policy cannot influence aggregate demand.
d. Monetary policy is only concerned with stable prices.
e. All of the above
.
.
Question 56
Which of the following is a tool of U.S. monetary policy?
Choose one answer.
a. The ability to raise or lower the “federal funds” short-term interest rate.
b. Foreign currency operations
c. The ability to raise or lower the “discount rate” that banks pay for primary credit from the Federal Reserve.
d. None of the above
e. Both A and C
.
.
Question 57
Which of the following is the correct definition of the “real interest rate”?
Choose one answer.
a. The rate at which banks borrow from the Federal Reserve System.
b. Nominal interest rates minus the expected rate of inflation.
c. The balance of supply and demand for banking reserves.
d. The average interest rate that citizens pay.
e. None of the above
.
.
Question 58
Which of the following is true of monetary policy?
Choose one answer.
a. Monetary policy actions can take months or years to affect the economy and inflation.
b. Monetary policy is subject to the whims of American voters.
c. While other policy areas are complex, making and evaluating monetary policy is relatively straightforward.
d. Monetary policy is used to address any issue related to the nation’s economy.
e. All of the above
.
.
Question 59
Which program is funded via the FICA tax?
Choose one answer.
a. Social Security
b. Welfare
c. The Department of Defense
d. Medicare
e. Both A and D
.
.
Question 60
According to the Rational Model of national security, which of the following are considered agreed upon “vital interests” of the United States?
Choose one answer.
a. American territorial integrity
b. Preservation of American political and economic institutions
c. A stable and friendly Canada and Mexico
d. Strong and prosperous free-market European democracies
e. All of the above
.
.
Question 61
Concerns for issues such as bargaining among key players in a “policy game” and their individual beliefs, values and interests are characteristics of which model of the policy-making process?
Choose one answer.
a. The Bureaucratic Politics Model
b. The Policy Streams Model
c. The Rational Model
d. The Leadership Model
e. None of the above
.
.
Question 62
In general, who sets the national security agenda?
Choose one answer.
a. The public sets the agenda by communicating to the government which issues it considers important and worthy of government action.
b. The government sets the national security agenda and creates support from the public through problem framing.
c. The government and the population each plays an equal role in setting the national security agenda.
d. Outside actors set the national security agenda through their actions.
e. None of the above
.
.
Question 63
Sense of mission, sense of self, and view of the problem and appropriate procedures to solve it are characteristics of which model of the policy-making process?
Choose one answer.
a. The Rational Model
b. Organizational Politics
c. Pluralism
d. Interest Group Politics
e. The Policy Streams Model
.
.
Question 64
Standard Operating Procedures are an element of which model of the policy-making process?
Choose one answer.
a. Interest Group Politics
b. The Stages Model
c. The Leadership Model
d. The Organizational Politics Model
e. The Policy Streams Model
.
.
Question 65
Technical understanding of the problem trumps all other issues in which model of the policy-making process?
Choose one answer.
a. The Policy Streams Model
b. The Rational Model
c. The Organizational Politics Model
d. The Leadership Model
e. Interest Group Politics
.
.
Question 66
The frequent use of covert military operations overseas to achieve U.S. foreign policy objectives might be the result of which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. The size of the budget of the Defense Department relative to that of the State Department.
b. The president’s free hand with regard to control over the military.
c. The prominent role of the Central Intelligence Agency in U.S. foreign policy.
d. A network of U.S. military bases strategically placed throughout the world.
e. All of the above
.
.
Question 67
Which model of the policy-making process seeks to account for timing and problem framing?
Choose one answer.
a. The Policy Streams Model
b. Pluralism
c. The Rational Model
d. Organizational Politics
e. Interest Group Politics
.
.
Question 68
Which model of the policy-making process views problems as defined based on preexisting, preferred solutions?
Choose one answer.
a. Pluralism
b. The Rational Model
c. The Policy Streams Model
d. Interest Group Politics
e. Organizational Politics
.
.
Question 69
Which of the following is associated with interest-group politics?
Choose one answer.
a. Pluralism
b. Expert-based decision-making
c. Corruption
d. All of the above
e. Both A and C
.
.
Question 70
Which of the following is not a role that Congress plays with regard to national security policy?
Choose one answer.
a. Budget authorization
b. Confirmation of senior appointments
c. Ratifying treaties
d. Approving covert action by Special Forces
e. Investigating executive-branch actions
.
.
Question 71
Which of the following issues poses challenges for policy makers seeking to improve domestic security?
Choose one answer.
a. The need to protect civil liberties.
b. Striking a balance between spending money to protect against domestic security threats, which cause relatively few deaths, and spending money to protect against other threats and conditions, such as traffic accidents and heart disease, that result in many more deaths.
c. Disagreements over the most effective and appropriate way to do so.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
.
.
Question 72
Who typically has influence on national security policy?
Choose one answer.
a. The voting public
b. Closed networks of politicians and experts
c. Relevant congressional committees
d. Relevant executive-branch agencies
e. Both B and D
.
.
Question 73
With regard to different heuristic models of the policy-making process, the Rational Model, agenda setting, the public agenda, and the government agenda are parts of which broader model of policy making?
Choose one answer.
a. The Policy Streams Model
b. The Leadership Model
c. The Stages Model
d. The Bureaucratic Politics Model
e. None of the above
.
.
Question 74
Arguments for having a more public “mix” of healthcare provision typically emphasize which values?
Choose one answer.
a. Competition leads to greater efficiency
b. Greater individual choice
c. Greater equity
d. Greater innovation
e. All of the above
.
.
Question 75
Health policy includes a variety of activities, one of which is public health. Which of the following is associated with public health?
Choose one answer.
a. Focus on the population
b. Service delivery
c. Standards for practice and treatment
d. Access to care
e. All of the above
.
.
Question 76
Health policy includes a variety of activities, one of which is health care. Which of the following is associated with health care?
Choose one answer.
a. Disease control
b. Funding
c. Environmental health
d. Occupational health
e. None of the above
.
.
Question 77
Medicare, Medicaid, and Social Security are examples of what form of government spending?
Choose one answer.
a. Discretionary spending
b. Entitlements
c. Public-private partnerships
d. Voluntary programs
e. None of the above
.
.
Question 78
Which of the following government programs provides health coverage to all citizens aged 65 and above?
Choose one answer.
a. Medicaid
b. Social Security
c. HIPAA
d. Medicare
e. None of the above
.
.
Question 79
Which of the following government programs provides funding to states to provide medical care to low-income families?
Choose one answer.
a. HIPAA
b. Medicaid
c. Social Security
d. Medicare
e. None of the above
.
.
Question 80
Which of the following is a characteristic of healthcare policy in the United States?
Choose one answer.
a. Executive branch initiatives dominate legislative branch initiatives.
b. There is a mix of public and private organizations that provide care.
c. The public has accepted a strong government role in providing health care.
d. The U.S. is comparable to other industrialized nations with regard to its healthcare system and policies.
e. Health policy in the U.S. has developed via periodic, drastic changes.
.
.
Question 81
Which of the following is a consequence of obesity?
Choose one answer.
a. Type 2 diabetes
b. Heart disease
c. High blood pressure
d. Stroke
e. All of the above
.
.
Question 82
Which of the following is a part of the government-provided healthcare system in the United States?
Choose one answer.
a. Medicare—the system for the elderly
b. Medicaid—the system for the poor
c. The Veterans Administration—the system for military veterans
d. The healthcare system for active-duty military personnel
e. All of the above
.
.
Question 83
Which statement best characterizes the current state of the U.S. healthcare system?
Choose one answer.
a. Costs are escalating and coverage is declining.
b. Costs remain stable but coverage has declined.
c. Costs are escalating but coverage has expanded.
d. Costs are declining at the expense of decreased coverage.
e. None of the above
.
.
Question 84
With regard to public health policy, health problems like smoking and obesity raise which of the following issues?
Choose one answer.
a. There is no scientific consensus that either smoking or obesity present clear health problems.
b. Policy makers have been unable to develop effective ways to curb these problems.
c. Though some argue that smoking and obesity represent public burdens, others contend that they are the result of individual lifestyle choices and not matters of public health that require policy interventions.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
.
.
Question 85
In the 1970s, the debates around the Tellico Dam centered on what issue?
Choose one answer.
a. Air pollution
b. Arguments regarding dam construction
c. Endangered species
d. The utility of hydroelectric power
e. None of the above
.
.
Question 86
What was the effect of the Supreme Court decisions “Palila vs. Hawaii Department of Land and Natural Resources” and “Babbitt vs. Sweet Home”?
Choose one answer.
a. The environmental movement was weakened for years.
b. The reach of the Endangered Species Act was expanded.
c. The Environmental Protection Agency was stripped of its ability to petition the Supreme Court.
d. The Environmental Protection Agency was given more control of its own budget.
e. None of the above
.
.
Question 87
Which of the following states is considered a leader in adopting policies aimed to address climate change?
Choose one answer.
a. New York
b. California
c. Texas
d. Florida
e. None of the above
.
.
Question 88
Why was wetlands management not considered a “problem” for the governmental agenda until the 1970s?
Choose one answer.
a. Prior to the 1970s, the public did not consider the wetlands to be a vital national resource.
b. The wetlands were not threatened prior to the 1970s.
c. There were robust wetlands-protection laws that were repealed in the 1970s.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
.
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Question 89
Within environmental policy, which of the following statements accurately characterizes the case of expanding the Clean Water Act to protect the wetlands?
Choose one answer.
a. A law can come to define policy in an area not originally intended by its creators.
b. An agency can use its regulatory discretion to expand its jurisdiction and take on new missions.
c. The courts can “make” policy by case law.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
.
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Question 90
According to Joseph Horn of the Texas Public Policy Program, what is a major source of poor K–12 education in Texas?
Choose one answer.
a. Economic inequality
b. Inadequate state funding for schools
c. Poor teacher-preparation programs at undergraduate colleges in Texas
d. A lack of a common curriculum in the state
e. All of the above
.
.
Question 91
What is the largest system of post-secondary education in the United States?
Choose one answer.
a. California’s system of community colleges
b. New York’s SUNY system
c. The University of Phoenix
d. The University of Texas system
e. None of the above
.
.
Question 92
Which of the following was an aspect of the 2001 No Child Left Behind policy?
Choose one answer.
a. The policy devolved power from the federal government to the states, allowing them to develop their own education policy and systems as they saw fit.
b. The policy established a nationwide system of high-stakes testing to hold schools accountable for meeting certain standards.
c. The policy required states to adopt a common, national curriculum.
d. The policy banned the use of tax dollars to fund religious schools.
e. None of the above
.
.
Question 93
According to the Colorado Institute of Public Policy, what are the benefits of community-based management?
Choose one answer.
a. It would engage citizens in the policy-making process at a time when distrust of federal and state policy makers is high.
b. It would engage multiple overlapping levels of government.
c. It would lead to better policy that is broadly supported.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
.
.
Question 94
How are programs for students with disabilities funded in California?
Choose one answer.
a. The federal government takes on all costs for students with disabilities.
b. Families of students with disabilities are required to make up for any costs incurred in excess of standard funding formulas for all students.
c. California employs a categorical funding process that calculates the entitlement for each student and pools funds from federal, state, and local sources.
d. Funding for special education is provided by charitable organizations.
e. None of the above
.
.
Question 95
Which of the following is a reason that some manufacturers have chosen to relocate their operations to rural areas?
Choose one answer.
a. Some rural local governments have offered manufacturers attractive local tax breaks.
b. Workers in rural locations are often more educated than urban workers.
c. Many rural locations offer cheaper, non-unionized labor.
d. The federal government has initiated programs to steer manufacturing back to rural areas.
e. Both A and C
.
.
Question 96
According to the Manhattan Public Policy Institute, what is the impact of incarcerating an increasing number of drug dealers?
Choose one answer.
a. There is little effect on the sale of drugs, as incarcerated sellers are simply replaced by other sellers.
b. There is less prison space available for violent criminals.
c. Increased incarceration has not had the intended effect on the price of drugs—in fact, the cost has generally decreased.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
.
.
Question 97
Cities and towns across California are increasingly adopting their own immigration policies. What might account for this?
Choose one answer.
a. California has not traditionally been a state with a high number of immigrants, but this is changing.
b. New immigrants are choosing to settle in places with little history of immigration rather than traditionally immigrant-rich areas.
c. The state government of California has delegated this task to local governments.
d. Immigrants have organized to push for certain policies in cities and towns across California.
e. None of the above
.
.
Question 98
What is one reason for the rise of legislation by individual states to address the issue of unauthorized immigrants working illegally?
Choose one answer.
a. The federal government has directed states to formulate their own policies.
b. Some states have come to increasingly rely on labor from unauthorized immigrants.
c. Federal legislators have been unable to pass comprehensive immigration reform.
d. Both B and C
e. None of the above
.
.
Question 99
What was the impact on unauthorized immigration in Arizona when the state implemented its E-Verify system in 2007?
Choose one answer.
a. Many unauthorized immigrants chose to become self-employed.
b. The population of unauthorized immigrants increased.
c. Many employers praised the system.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
.
.
Question 100
Which state has the highest population of immigrants?
Choose one answer.
a. California
b. Ohio
c. Texas
d. New Mexico
e. Arizona
.
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