A person who prefers discovering possibilities and relationships in his or her learning style is what type of learner?

	a. Active
	b. Reflective
	c. Sensing
	d. Intuitive
	e. Visual

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As noted in Chapter 12 of Managing Groups and Teams, what role conflict may a newly promoted team leader struggle with?

	a. Becoming an information disseminator
	b. The entrepreneurial role
	c. The figurehead role
	d. The balance between the relationships built as a peer and the responsibility of acting as a boss
	e. Acting as a spokesperson

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What is a possible risk that reflective learners may experience?

	a. They may overthink when trying to come to a decision.
	b. They may make hasty and potentially ill-informed judgments.
	c. They prefer what is familiar and concentrate on known facts rather than being innovative.
	d. They rely heavily on graphical or pictorial information.
	e. They overlook important details.

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What is considered the most powerful influence over a person’s job performance?

	a. Stress
	b. General mental ability
	c. Perceptions of organizational justice and interpersonal relationships
	d. Work attitudes
	e. Conscientiousness

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Which of the following is an antecedent to the development of a high-quality, leader-member exchange?

	a. Self-direction
	b. Personality similarity
	c. Conscientiousness
	d. Agreeableness
	e. Openness

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Which principle does John Maxwell consider the most important once a person has been promoted?

	a. Continuing pre-existing relationships
	b. Leading by example
	c. Avoiding office politics
	d. Practicing management functions right away
	e. Getting rid of any relationship baggage right away

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There are various types of planning that differ in breadth and time frame. Which type of planning has a long time frame of three years or more?

	a. Tactical
	b. Operational
	c. Strategic
	d. Decision-making
	e. Organizational

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To which function do systems/processes belong in the P-O-L-C framework?

	a. Planning
	b. Leading
	c. Controlling
	d. Organizing
	e. Strategizing

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Which of the following belongs to the planning function in the P-O-L-C framework?

	a. Organization Design
	b. Motivation
	c. Culture
	d. Vision and Mission
	e. Communications

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Which of the following describes a line manager’s function?

	a. Ensuring the efficiency and effectiveness of an area, such as accounting or marketing
	b. Developing the organization’s strategy and being a steward for its vision and mission
	c. Planning, execution, and closing of any project
	d. Leading a function that creates indirect inputs
	e. Leading a function that contributes directly to the products or services the organization creates

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Which of the following is NOT one of the four general management functions?

	a. Leading
	b. Controlling
	c. Analyzing
	d. Organizing
	e. Planning

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Which of the following managerial roles are associated with providing information?

	a. Monitor, disseminator, and spokesperson
	b. Figurehead, leader, and liaison
	c. Negotiator, disseminator, and resource allocator
	d. Spokesperson, negotiator, and monitor
	e. Entrepreneur, disturbance handler, and negotiator

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According to Principles of Management, how is leadership defined?

	a. By the act of influencing others to work toward a goal
	b. By how much a person relies on force and punishment to influence others
	c. By the organization
	d. By the staff who are being led
	e. By psychology tests

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In the discussion of poor leadership in Managing Groups and Teams, what type of poor leadership does the following phrase describe?

	a. Incompetent
	b. Rigid
	c. Intemperate
	d. Callous
	e. Corrupt

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One of the contingency approaches to leadership examines follower readiness to determine which leadership style would be best for a situation. What is the name of this contingency approach of leadership?

	a. Situational leadership theory (SLT)
	b. Contingency theory
	c. Path-goal theory of leadership
	d. Normative decision model
	e. Maslow’s hierarchy of needs

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One of the contingency approaches to leadership examines follower readiness to determine which leadership style would be best for the situation. Which two follower readiness traits are used for that determination?

	a. Intelligence and extroversion
	b. Openness and conscientiousness
	c. High task and low people orientation
	d. Competence and commitment
	e. Low task and high people orientation

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Which answer is not part of the delegation process as described in the article “How Well Do You Delegate”?

	a. Clarifying your expectations
	b. Establishing checkpoints
	c. Delegating the results, not the process
	d. Developing one-year tactical plans
	e. Defining your role

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Which of the following does NOT describe a trait that is strongly related to leadership?

	a. Openness
	b. High intelligence
	c. Neuroticism
	d. High emotional intelligence
	e. Integrity

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How much in-person communication is dependent on nonverbal cues?

	a. 10 percent
	b. 20 percent
	c. 35 percent
	d. 40 percent
	e. 55 percent

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In communication, you may enjoy greater success in conveying your message depending on whether you use verbal or written communication. Which of the following does NOT favor verbal communication?

	a. You are conveying emotions and feelings, not facts.
	b. The ideas conveyed are very complex.
	c. There is time urgency.
	d. You need immediate feedback.
	e. The message does not need to be permanent.

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What is the meaning of the word proxemics?

	a. It has to do with touch, a nonverbal form of communication.
	b. It has to do with facial expressions, a nonverbal form of communication.
	c. It has to do with space (i.e., distance occurring between people), a nonverbal form of communication.
	d. It has to do with storytelling, a verbal form of communication.
	e. It has to do with writing memorandums, a written form of communication.

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When you listen for message content and feelings, respond to the feelings, note all cues, paraphrase, and restate, what behavior are you engaging in?

	a. Rehearsing
	b. Diversity management
	c. Active listening
	d. Performance evaluation
	e. Poor listening

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Which of the following answers is NOT a barrier to effective communication as discussed in Principles of Management?

	a. Filtering
	b. Selective perception
	c. Tactical planning
	d. Lack of source credibility
	e. Semantics

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“A process by which information is exchanged between individuals through a common system of symbols, signs, or behavior” is the definition of

	a. communication.
	b. planning.
	c. management.
	d. delegation.
	e. empowerment.

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According to Principles of Management, which decision type includes immersion, incubation, and illumination in its decision-making process?

	a. Rational
	b. Creative
	c. Bounded Rationality
	d. Intuitive
	e. Tactical

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In Principles of Management, the authors present a rational decision-making process. Which of the following is the first step in the process?

	a. Establish decision criteria
	b. Weigh decision criteria
	c. Generate alternatives
	d. Identify the problem
	e. Choose the best alternative

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In the article “Brainstorming – Making Something Out of Everything,” author Tyner Blain enumerates five steps for effective brainstorming. Which step matches this description: “Let people know that this is a brainstorming session, which means that all ideas are valuable.”

	a. Set the ground rules
	b. Set a time limit
	c. Define a starting point
	d. Shout out and write
	e. Pick the requirements

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In the article “Creative Problem Solving with SCAMPER,” each letter in the acronym SCAMPER represents a creativity-boosting technique. Each technique has a set of helper questions. Which technique is associated with the helper question “What can be made higher, bigger, or stronger?”

	a. Substitute
	b. Combine
	c. Adapt
	d. Magnify
	e. Put to other use

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Intuitive decision making, as discussed in Principles of Management, is a method in which the decider considers only one option at a time. What kind of person makes an intuitive decision?

	a. A novice, who doesn’t have enough experience to generate alternative solutions
	b. Only staff managers, because they have indirect expertise
	c. People with considerable training, knowledge, and expertise who are familiar with environmental patterns and solutions from previous experience
	d. Only project managers, as their environment offers limited options
	e. Only external, highly paid consultants

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Principles of Management describes a decision type that recognizes the limitations of the decision-making process. “Satisficing,” making “good enough decisions,” deliberately limiting options, and searching for alternatives to a manageable set are associated with this decision type. What is the term for this decision type?

	a. Rational
	b. SCAMPER
	c. Intuitive
	d. Bounded rationality
	e. Strategic

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According to the GAO article, which of the following describes a key obstacle for older workers and their potential employers?

	a. Employer perception about the cost of hiring and retaining older workers
	b. Sex discrimination
	c. Too many suitable job opportunities
	d. Wealth of older workers diminishes their interest in work
	e. Highly flexible schedules

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Regarding team structure in Managing Groups and Teams, what initial step is discussed and recommended to maximize effectiveness in a diverse team?

	a. Conduct performance appraisals
	b. Have members take a seminar on decision making
	c. Delegate tasks when your workload is heavy
	d. Ensure safe, open communication through a team contract, in which members agree to respectful behavior
	e. Create tactical plans

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What attributes does deep-level diversity consist of?

	a. Attitudes, beliefs, values, and commitment to the organization
	b. Race or gender
	c. Gender, culture or sexual orientation
	d. Disabilities
	e. Age

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Which of the following diversity characteristics is NOT demographic in nature, but has to do with deep-level diversity, as outlined in Managing Groups and Teams?

	a. Personality
	b. Age
	c. Gender
	d. Race
	e. Disability

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Which of the following is FALSE in regard to stereotyping?

	a. Stereotyping can cause misunderstandings in early interactions.
	b. Stereotyping is not an issue for managing diversity in a team.
	c. Preconceived notions may limit contributions to the team.
	d. Specific strengths or talents may be overlooked because they do not seem prominent in a given stereotypical category.
	e. Poor performance may be overlooked because an individual is in a stereotypically desirable category.

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Which of the following is NOT a step toward managing a diverse team?

	a. Developing an atmosphere in which it is safe for all employees to ask for help
	b. Actively seeking information from people from a variety of backgrounds and cultures
	c. Including in the problem solving and decision making process only the people who make you feel the most comfortable
	d. Including people who are different from you in informal gatherings
	e. Creating a team spirit in which all members feel involved

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A number of techniques enhance job design. Which description below best fits the technique known as job enhancement?

	a. Breaking down tasks to their simplest components and assigning them to employees so that each person performs a few tasks in a repetitive manner
	b. Expanding the tasks performed by employees to add more variety
	c. Allowing workers more control over how they perform their own tasks, giving them more responsibility
	d. Requiring the person to use multiple high-level skills
	e. Moving employees from job to job at regular intervals

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ERG theory, in which needs are grouped into existence, relatedness, and growth categories, is based upon another motivational theory. What is its name?

	a. Two-factor theory
	b. Acquired needs theory
	c. Maslow’s hierarchy of needs
	d. Expectancy theory
	e. Reinforcement theory

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Hackman and Oldham’s job characteristics model proposes five core job dimensions that lead to psychological states that in turn influence job outcomes. Which of the following best describes the core characteristics of task identity?

	a. The degree to which the job requires the use of multiple high-level skills
	b. The degree to which the person completes a piece of work from start to finish and can thus claim responsibility for the final output
	c. The degree to which the person’s job substantially affects other people’s work, health, or wellbeing
	d. The degree to which the person has the freedom to decide how to perform tasks
	e. The degree to which the person learns how effective he or she is at work

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When a manager provides development and growth opportunities on or off the job, and assigns interesting, challenging work for staff members, which stage of Maslow’s hierarchy is he or she trying to fulfill for staff?

	a. Self-actualization
	b. Social
	c. Safety
	d. Physiological
	e. Psychosocial

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Which of the following illustrates a potential drawback in using goal-setting theory?

	a. When employees are rewarded for goal accomplishment but not for coming very close to reaching the goal, employees may be tempted to cheat.
	b. There are no drawbacks to goal-setting theory.
	c. Since goals are defined in strategic planning, it is very difficult to use them in tactical and operational planning.
	d. Goal-setting theory and needs-based theories are mutually exclusive; an organization cannot use both theory types simultaneously.
	e. SMART goals are inherently inefficient.

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Which of the following is a theory that explores people’s sense of fairness, where an employee would establish a ratio of inputs and outputs in relation to another employee’s inputs and outputs?

	a. Maslow’s hierarchy of needs
	b. Acquired needs theory
	c. Two-factor theory
	d. Equity theory
	e. ERG theory

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According to Principles of Management, what is the most common appraisal error?

	a. Leniency
	b. Not using external consultants
	c. Performing evaluations too frequently
	d. Trying to ensure the mutual needs of the employee and the organization
	e. Avoiding performance appraisals altogether

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How are goals different from objectives?

	a. There is no difference between goals and objectives.
	b. Goals reflect major, general actions of the organization, whereas objectives are very precise, time-based, measurable actions that support the completion of a goal.
	c. Objectives are used for motivation, but goals are not.
	d. Goals are determined by operational-level employees, and top management determines objectives.
	e. Neither goals nor objectives are measurable.

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One of the characteristics of appropriate goals and objectives is to measure only important variables rather than many insignificant ones. How many key goals are considered to be ideal?

	a. 1 or 2
	b. 5 to 10
	c. More than 10
	d. 2 to 7
	e. There is no limitation; the organization should create as many as are needed.

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What goal-setting method was replaced by the balanced scorecard approach, and why?

	a. MBO, because it proved to be so effective in aligning with a firm’s vision
	b. Herzberg’s equity theory, because it allowed employees to seek fair treatment
	c. MBO, because over time it proved to be disconnected from a firm’s strategies and rewards
	d. There was no goal-setting approach before balanced scorecard.
	e. Performance appraisals, because managers were too lenient

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Which answer is NOT a characteristic of appropriate goals and objectives?

	a. Measures should focus on the few key variables rather than the trivial many fewer are better.
	b. Measures should be linked to the factors needed for success key business drivers.
	c. Measures should start at the top and flow down to all levels of employees in the organization.
	d. Measures need to have targets or objectives established that are based on arbitrary numbers.
	e. Measures should be changed, or at least adjusted as the environment and your strategy change.

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Which management function are goals and objectives associated with?

	a. Organization design
	b. Planning
	c. Organizing
	d. Leading
	e. Controlling

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How is the punctuated equilibrium model related to the group development model?

	a. There is no relationship between the punctuated equilibrium and group development models.
	b. The punctuated equilibrium model is actually a modification of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs.
	c. It is based on the group development model, but instead of a smooth path, groups can repeatedly cycle through the storming and performing stages, with revolutionary change occurring in short transitional windows.
	d. It is based on the group development model, but the leader skips through the storming and performing stages.
	e. It is based on the group development model, but the group goes only through the storming and performing stages.

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In discussing group characteristics, Principles of Management cites the disastrous 1961 decision by John Kennedy and his cabinet to invade Cuba. What does this example illustrate?

	a. Groupthink
	b. Similarity
	c. Stability
	d. Social loafing
	e. Lack of cohesion

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In the stages of group development, which of the following describes an aspect of the storming phase?

	a. The members may already know each other, or they may be total strangers.
	b. Participants focus less on keeping up their guard as they shed social facades, becoming more authentic and more argumentative.
	c. The group is galvanized by a sense of shared vision and a feeling of unity and is ready to go into high gear.
	d. The manager should set aside time to debrief.
	e. Group leaders can finally move into coaching roles and help members grow in skill and leadership.

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What are the two general classifications of group types in an organization?

	a. Managers and external consultants
	b. Formal and informal
	c. Needs-based and process-based
	d. Outside and inside
	e. There is only one type of group.

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What is general cause of the social loafing tendency?

	a. Laziness, because members of a group will rely on the others to perform the work
	b. Perception that one will receive neither one’s fair share of rewards if the group is successful nor blame if the group fails
	c. Collective efficacy, which is the group’s perception of its ability to perform well
	d. Verbal persuasion in which the social loafer tries to get others to perform his or her work
	e. Very high task independence, because the social loafer is antisocial

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Which group cohesion factor matches the following description?

	a. Similarity
	b. Stability
	c. Size
	d. Support
	e. Satisfaction

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A person who likes to keep structure to meetings, organize documentation, and make sure things run smoothly is a

	a. devil’s advocate.
	b. follower.
	c. facilitator.
	d. sniper.
	e. rumormonger.

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To what group of team role types do contractor, creator, contributor, and completer roles belong?

	a. Social
	b. Task
	c. Boundary-spanning
	d. Temporary
	e. Virtual

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What is the definition of a team?

	a. A collection of individuals who interact with each other such that one person’s actions have an impact on the others
	b. A cohesive coalition of people working together to achieve mutual goals
	c. A collection of individuals who have been paid to play some form of sport
	d. A collection of individuals who an organization encourages to pursue their own personal goals
	e. A group of individuals that all possess exactly the same skills, competing with each other to be the leader

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Which of the following describes a team contributor role?

	a. Reframing the team goals and looking at the context of goals
	b. Sharing knowledge and training those who have less expertise
	c. Following up on tasks such as gathering needed background information
	d. Practicing good listening skills and appropriately using humor
	e. Supporting those with expertise as they work toward the team’s goals

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Which of the following does NOT belong to the constructive personality category?

	a. Silent contributor
	b. Devil’s advocate
	c. Follower
	d. Perfectionist
	e. Facilitator

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Which of the following is NOT an attribute or condition associated with self-managed teams?

	a. Higher job satisfaction
	b. Increased productivity
	c. More absenteeism
	d. Increased self-esteem
	e. Lower turnover

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