A person who prefers discovering possibilities and relationships in his or her learning style is what type of learner?

Choose one answer.

	a. Active
	b. Reflective
	c. Sensing
	d. Intuitive
	e. Visual

Question 2

As noted in Chapter 12 of Managing Groups and Teams, what role conflict may a newly promoted team leader struggle with?

Choose one answer.

	a. Becoming an information disseminator
	b. The entrepreneurial role
	c. The figurehead role
	d. The balance between the relationships built as a peer and the responsibility of acting as a boss
	e. Acting as a spokesperson

Question 3

What is a possible risk that reflective learners may experience?

Choose one answer.

	a. They may overthink when trying to come to a decision.
	b. They may make hasty and potentially ill-informed judgments.
	c. They prefer what is familiar and concentrate on known facts rather than being innovative.
	d. They rely heavily on graphical or pictorial information.
	e. They overlook important details.

Question 4

What is considered the most powerful influence over a person's job performance?

Choose one answer.

	a. Stress
	b. General mental ability
	c. Perceptions of organizational justice and interpersonal relationships
	d. Work attitudes
	e. Conscientiousness

Question 5

Which of the following is an antecedent to the development of a high-quality, leader-member exchange?

Choose one answer.

	a. Self-direction
	b. Personality similarity
	c. Conscientiousness
	d. Agreeableness
	e. Openness

Question 6

Which principle does John Maxwell consider the most important once a person has been promoted?

Choose one answer.

	a. Continuing pre-existing relationships
	b. Leading by example
	c. Avoiding office politics
	d. Practicing management functions right away
	e. Getting rid of any relationship baggage right away

Question 7

There are various types of planning that differ in breadth and time frame. Which type of planning has a long time frame of three years or more?

Choose one answer.

	a. Tactical
	b. Operational
	c. Strategic
	d. Decision-making
	e. Organizational

Question 8

To which function do systems/processes belong in the P-O-L-C framework?

Choose one answer.

	a. Planning
	b. Leading
	c. Controlling
	d. Organizing
	e. Strategizing

Question 9

Which of the following belongs to the planning function in the P-O-L-C framework?

Choose one answer.

	a. Organization Design
	b. Motivation
	c. Culture
	d. Vision and Mission
	e. Communications

Question 10

Which of the following describes a line manager's function?

Choose one answer.

	a. Ensuring the efficiency and effectiveness of an area, such as accounting or marketing
	b. Developing the organization's strategy and being a steward for its vision and mission
	c. Planning, execution, and closing of any project
	d. Leading a function that creates indirect inputs
	e. Leading a function that contributes directly to the products or services the organization creates

Question 11

Which of the following is NOT one of the four general management functions?

Choose one answer.

	a. Leading
	b. Controlling
	c. Analyzing
	d. Organizing
	e. Planning

Question 12

Which of the following managerial roles are associated with providing information?

Choose one answer.

	a. Monitor, disseminator, and spokesperson
	b. Figurehead, leader, and liaison
	c. Negotiator, disseminator, and resource allocator
	d. Spokesperson, negotiator, and monitor
	e. Entrepreneur, disturbance handler, and negotiator

Question 13

According to Principles of Management, how is leadership defined?

Choose one answer.

	a. By the act of influencing others to work toward a goal
	b. By how much a person relies on force and punishment to influence others
	c. By the organization
	d. By the staff who are being led
	e. By psychology tests

Question 14

In the discussion of poor leadership in Managing Groups and Teams, what type of poor leadership does the following phrase describe?

Choose one answer.

	a. Incompetent
	b. Rigid
	c. Intemperate
	d. Callous
	e. Corrupt

Question 15

One of the contingency approaches to leadership examines follower readiness to determine which leadership style would be best for a situation. What is the name of this contingency approach of leadership?

Choose one answer.

	a. Situational leadership theory (SLT)
	b. Contingency theory
	c. Path-goal theory of leadership
	d. Normative decision model
	e. Maslow's hierarchy of needs

Question 16

One of the contingency approaches to leadership examines follower readiness to determine which leadership style would be best for the situation. Which two follower readiness traits are used for that determination?

Choose one answer.

	a. Intelligence and extroversion
	b. Openness and conscientiousness
	c. High task and low people orientation
	d. Competence and commitment
	e. Low task and high people orientation

Question 17

Which answer is not part of the delegation process as described in the article "How Well Do You Delegate"?

Choose one answer.

	a. Clarifying your expectations
	b. Establishing checkpoints
	c. Delegating the results, not the process
	d. Developing one-year tactical plans
	e. Defining your role

Question 18

Which of the following does NOT describe a trait that is strongly related to leadership?

Choose one answer.

	a. Openness
	b. High intelligence
	c. Neuroticism
	d. High emotional intelligence
	e. Integrity

Question 19

How much in-person communication is dependent on nonverbal cues?

Choose one answer.

	a. 10 percent
	b. 20 percent
	c. 35 percent
	d. 40 percent
	e. 55 percent

Question 20

In communication, you may enjoy greater success in conveying your message depending on whether you use verbal or written communication. Which of the following does NOT favor verbal communication?

Choose one answer.

	a. You are conveying emotions and feelings, not facts.
	b. The ideas conveyed are very complex.
	c. There is time urgency.
	d. You need immediate feedback.
	e. The message does not need to be permanent.

Question 21

What is the meaning of the word proxemics?

Choose one answer.

	a. It has to do with touch, a nonverbal form of communication.
	b. It has to do with facial expressions, a nonverbal form of communication.
	c. It has to do with space (i.e., distance occurring between people), a nonverbal form of communication.
	d. It has to do with storytelling, a verbal form of communication.
	e. It has to do with writing memorandums, a written form of communication.

Question 22

When you listen for message content and feelings, respond to the feelings, note all cues, paraphrase, and restate, what behavior are you engaging in?

Choose one answer.

	a. Rehearsing
	b. Diversity management
	c. Active listening
	d. Performance evaluation
	e. Poor listening

Question 23

Which of the following answers is NOT a barrier to effective communication as discussed in Principles of Management?

Choose one answer.

	a. Filtering
	b. Selective perception
	c. Tactical planning
	d. Lack of source credibility
	e. Semantics

Question 24

"A process by which information is exchanged between individuals through a common system of symbols, signs, or behavior" is the definition of

Choose one answer.

	a. communication.
	b. planning.
	c. management.
	d. delegation.
	e. empowerment.

Question 25

According to Principles of Management, which decision type includes immersion, incubation, and illumination in its decision-making process?

Choose one answer.

	a. Rational
	b. Creative
	c. Bounded Rationality
	d. Intuitive
	e. Tactical

Question 26

In Principles of Management, the authors present a rational decision-making process. Which of the following is the first step in the process?

Choose one answer.

	a. Establish decision criteria
	b. Weigh decision criteria
	c. Generate alternatives
	d. Identify the problem
	e. Choose the best alternative

Question 27

In the article "Brainstorming - Making Something Out of Everything," author Tyner Blain enumerates five steps for effective brainstorming. Which step matches this description: "Let people know that this is a brainstorming session, which means that all ideas are valuable."

Choose one answer.

	a. Set the ground rules
	b. Set a time limit
	c. Define a starting point
	d. Shout out and write
	e. Pick the requirements

Question 28

In the article "Creative Problem Solving with SCAMPER," each letter in the acronym SCAMPER represents a creativity-boosting technique. Each technique has a set of helper questions. Which technique is associated with the helper question "What can be made higher, bigger, or stronger?"

Choose one answer.

	a. Substitute
	b. Combine
	c. Adapt
	d. Magnify
	e. Put to other use

Question 29

Intuitive decision making, as discussed in Principles of Management, is a method in which the decider considers only one option at a time. What kind of person makes an intuitive decision?

Choose one answer.

	a. A novice, who doesn't have enough experience to generate alternative solutions
	b. Only staff managers, because they have indirect expertise
	c. People with considerable training, knowledge, and expertise who are familiar with environmental patterns and solutions from previous experience
	d. Only project managers, as their environment offers limited options
	e. Only external, highly paid consultants

Question 30

Principles of Management describes a decision type that recognizes the limitations of the decision-making process. "Satisficing," making "good enough decisions," deliberately limiting options, and searching for alternatives to a manageable set are associated with this decision type. What is the term for this decision type?

Choose one answer.

	a. Rational
	b. SCAMPER
	c. Intuitive
	d. Bounded rationality
	e. Strategic

Question 31

According to the GAO article, which of the following describes a key obstacle for older workers and their potential employers?

Choose one answer.

	a. Employer perception about the cost of hiring and retaining older workers
	b. Sex discrimination
	c. Too many suitable job opportunities
	d. Wealth of older workers diminishes their interest in work
	e. Highly flexible schedules

Question 32

Regarding team structure in Managing Groups and Teams, what initial step is discussed and recommended to maximize effectiveness in a diverse team?

Choose one answer.

	a. Conduct performance appraisals
	b. Have members take a seminar on decision making
	c. Delegate tasks when your workload is heavy
	d. Ensure safe, open communication through a team contract, in which members agree to respectful behavior
	e. Create tactical plans

Question 33

What attributes does deep-level diversity consist of?

Choose one answer.

	a. Attitudes, beliefs, values, and commitment to the organization
	b. Race or gender
	c. Gender, culture or sexual orientation
	d. Disabilities
	e. Age

Question 34

Which of the following diversity characteristics is NOT demographic in nature, but has to do with deep-level diversity, as outlined in Managing Groups and Teams?

Choose one answer.

	a. Personality
	b. Age
	c. Gender
	d. Race
	e. Disability

Question 35

Which of the following is FALSE in regard to stereotyping?

Choose one answer.

	a. Stereotyping can cause misunderstandings in early interactions.
	b. Stereotyping is not an issue for managing diversity in a team.
	c. Preconceived notions may limit contributions to the team.
	d. Specific strengths or talents may be overlooked because they do not seem prominent in a given stereotypical category.
	e. Poor performance may be overlooked because an individual is in a stereotypically desirable category.

Question 36

Which of the following is NOT a step toward managing a diverse team?

Choose one answer.

	a. Developing an atmosphere in which it is safe for all employees to ask for help
	b. Actively seeking information from people from a variety of backgrounds and cultures
	c. Including in the problem solving and decision making process only the people who make you feel the most comfortable
	d. Including people who are different from you in informal gatherings
	e. Creating a team spirit in which all members feel involved

Question 37

A number of techniques enhance job design. Which description below best fits the technique known as job enhancement?

Choose one answer.

	a. Breaking down tasks to their simplest components and assigning them to employees so that each person performs a few tasks in a repetitive manner
	b. Expanding the tasks performed by employees to add more variety
	c. Allowing workers more control over how they perform their own tasks, giving them more responsibility
	d. Requiring the person to use multiple high-level skills
	e. Moving employees from job to job at regular intervals

Question 38

ERG theory, in which needs are grouped into existence, relatedness, and growth categories, is based upon another motivational theory. What is its name?

Choose one answer.

	a. Two-factor theory
	b. Acquired needs theory
	c. Maslow's hierarchy of needs
	d. Expectancy theory
	e. Reinforcement theory

Question 39

Hackman and Oldham's job characteristics model proposes five core job dimensions that lead to psychological states that in turn influence job outcomes. Which of the following best describes the core characteristics of task identity?

Choose one answer.

	a. The degree to which the job requires the use of multiple high-level skills
	b. The degree to which the person completes a piece of work from start to finish and can thus claim responsibility for the final output
	c. The degree to which the person's job substantially affects other people's work, health, or wellbeing
	d. The degree to which the person has the freedom to decide how to perform tasks
	e. The degree to which the person learns how effective he or she is at work

Question 40

When a manager provides development and growth opportunities on or off the job, and assigns interesting, challenging work for staff members, which stage of Maslow's hierarchy is he or she trying to fulfill for staff?

Choose one answer.

	a. Self-actualization
	b. Social
	c. Safety
	d. Physiological
	e. Psychosocial

Question 41

Which of the following illustrates a potential drawback in using goal-setting theory?

Choose one answer.

	a. When employees are rewarded for goal accomplishment but not for coming very close to reaching the goal, employees may be tempted to cheat.
	b. There are no drawbacks to goal-setting theory.
	c. Since goals are defined in strategic planning, it is very difficult to use them in tactical and operational planning.
	d. Goal-setting theory and needs-based theories are mutually exclusive; an organization cannot use both theory types simultaneously.
	e. SMART goals are inherently inefficient.

Question 42

Which of the following is a theory that explores people's sense of fairness, where an employee would establish a ratio of inputs and outputs in relation to another employee's inputs and outputs?

Choose one answer.

	a. Maslow's hierarchy of needs
	b. Acquired needs theory
	c. Two-factor theory
	d. Equity theory
	e. ERG theory

Question 43

According to Principles of Management, what is the most common appraisal error?

Choose one answer.

	a. Leniency
	b. Not using external consultants
	c. Performing evaluations too frequently
	d. Trying to ensure the mutual needs of the employee and the organization
	e. Avoiding performance appraisals altogether

Question 44

How are goals different from objectives?

Choose one answer.

	a. There is no difference between goals and objectives.
	b. Goals reflect major, general actions of the organization, whereas objectives are very precise, time-based, measurable actions that support the completion of a goal.
	c. Objectives are used for motivation, but goals are not.
	d. Goals are determined by operational-level employees, and top management determines objectives.
	e. Neither goals nor objectives are measurable.

Question 45

One of the characteristics of appropriate goals and objectives is to measure only important variables rather than many insignificant ones. How many key goals are considered to be ideal?

Choose one answer.

	a. 1 or 2
	b. 5 to 10
	c. More than 10
	d. 2 to 7
	e. There is no limitation; the organization should create as many as are needed.

Question 46

What goal-setting method was replaced by the balanced scorecard approach, and why?

Choose one answer.

	a. MBO, because it proved to be so effective in aligning with a firm's vision
	b. Herzberg's equity theory, because it allowed employees to seek fair treatment
	c. MBO, because over time it proved to be disconnected from a firm's strategies and rewards
	d. There was no goal-setting approach before balanced scorecard.
	e. Performance appraisals, because managers were too lenient

Question 47

Which answer is NOT a characteristic of appropriate goals and objectives?

Choose one answer.

	a. Measures should focus on the few key variables rather than the trivial many fewer are better.
	b. Measures should be linked to the factors needed for success key business drivers.
	c. Measures should start at the top and flow down to all levels of employees in the organization.
	d. Measures need to have targets or objectives established that are based on arbitrary numbers.
	e. Measures should be changed, or at least adjusted as the environment and your strategy change.

Question 48

Which management function are goals and objectives associated with?

Choose one answer.

	a. Organization design
	b. Planning
	c. Organizing
	d. Leading
	e. Controlling

Question 49

How is the punctuated equilibrium model related to the group development model?

Choose one answer.

	a. There is no relationship between the punctuated equilibrium and group development models.
	b. The punctuated equilibrium model is actually a modification of Maslow's hierarchy of needs.
	c. It is based on the group development model, but instead of a smooth path, groups can repeatedly cycle through the storming and performing stages, with revolutionary change occurring in short transitional windows.
	d. It is based on the group development model, but the leader skips through the storming and performing stages.
	e. It is based on the group development model, but the group goes only through the storming and performing stages.

Question 50

In discussing group characteristics, Principles of Management cites the disastrous 1961 decision by John Kennedy and his cabinet to invade Cuba. What does this example illustrate?

Choose one answer.

	a. Groupthink
	b. Similarity
	c. Stability
	d. Social loafing
	e. Lack of cohesion

Question 51

In the stages of group development, which of the following describes an aspect of the storming phase?

Choose one answer.

	a. The members may already know each other, or they may be total strangers.
	b. Participants focus less on keeping up their guard as they shed social facades, becoming more authentic and more argumentative.
	c. The group is galvanized by a sense of shared vision and a feeling of unity and is ready to go into high gear.
	d. The manager should set aside time to debrief.
	e. Group leaders can finally move into coaching roles and help members grow in skill and leadership.

Question 52

What are the two general classifications of group types in an organization?

Choose one answer.

	a. Managers and external consultants
	b. Formal and informal
	c. Needs-based and process-based
	d. Outside and inside
	e. There is only one type of group.

Question 53

What is general cause of the social loafing tendency?

Choose one answer.

	a. Laziness, because members of a group will rely on the others to perform the work
	b. Perception that one will receive neither one's fair share of rewards if the group is successful nor blame if the group fails
	c. Collective efficacy, which is the group's perception of its ability to perform well
	d. Verbal persuasion in which the social loafer tries to get others to perform his or her work
	e. Very high task independence, because the social loafer is antisocial

Question 54

Which group cohesion factor matches the following description?

Choose one answer.

	a. Similarity
	b. Stability
	c. Size
	d. Support
	e. Satisfaction

Question 55

A person who likes to keep structure to meetings, organize documentation, and make sure things run smoothly is a

Choose one answer.

	a. devil's advocate.
	b. follower.
	c. facilitator.
	d. sniper.
	e. rumormonger.

Question 56

To what group of team role types do contractor, creator, contributor, and completer roles belong?

Choose one answer.

	a. Social
	b. Task
	c. Boundary-spanning
	d. Temporary
	e. Virtual

Question 57

What is the definition of a team?

Choose one answer.

	a. A collection of individuals who interact with each other such that one person's actions have an impact on the others
	b. A cohesive coalition of people working together to achieve mutual goals
	c. A collection of individuals who have been paid to play some form of sport
	d. A collection of individuals who an organization encourages to pursue their own personal goals
	e. A group of individuals that all possess exactly the same skills, competing with each other to be the leader

Question 58

Which of the following describes a team contributor role?

Choose one answer.

	a. Reframing the team goals and looking at the context of goals
	b. Sharing knowledge and training those who have less expertise
	c. Following up on tasks such as gathering needed background information
	d. Practicing good listening skills and appropriately using humor
	e. Supporting those with expertise as they work toward the team's goals

Question 59

Which of the following does NOT belong to the constructive personality category?

Choose one answer.

	a. Silent contributor
	b. Devil's advocate
	c. Follower
	d. Perfectionist
	e. Facilitator

Question 60

Which of the following is NOT an attribute or condition associated with self-managed teams?

Choose one answer.

	a. Higher job satisfaction
	b. Increased productivity
	c. More absenteeism
	d. Increased self-esteem
	e. Lower turnover