PSYCH304-FinalExam-Answers

Data collection methods to conduct a job analysis include all of the following EXCEPT:

Choose one answer.

	a. Questionnaire.
	b. Perform the job.
	c. Customer surveys.
	d. Multiple methods.

Question 2

Frederick Taylor’s scientific management did which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. Replaced rule-of-thumb work methods with scientific study.
	b. Scientifically selected, trained, and developed workers.
	c. Assisted workers to ensure that scientific methods were followed.
	d. All of the above

Question 3

Human Resource data collections come from all of the following sources EXCEPT:

Choose one answer.

	a. Supervisor or manager.
	b. Board members.
	c. Job analyst.
	d. Former jobholders.

Question 4

In terms of practice, this is a time for I/O experts to provide guidance to organizations on which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. How to maintain and increase performance effectiveness
	b. How to help employers select the right people for new forms of jobs
	c. How to set performance expectations that are linked to corporate strategy and performance of employees and contractors working side-by-side
	d. All of the above

Question 5

The foundation of all Human Resource planning includes which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. Training
	b. Forecasting
	c. Finance
	d. IT

Question 6

The talent management “sweet spot” is the overlap between which two sets of interests?

Choose one answer.

	a. Between career management and career development
	b. Between management and development
	c. Between training and development
	d. None of the above

Question 7

What organization created the Ethical Principles of Psychology?

Choose one answer.

	a. APA-American Psychological Association
	b. SIOP-Society for Industrial and Organizational Psychology
	c. SHRM –Society for Human Resource Management
	d. None of the above

Question 8

Which of the following is a form of research methods used in I/O Psychology?

Choose one answer.

	a. Qualitative studies
	b. Work ethics
	c. Abstract reasoning
	d. Logical conclusions

Question 9

Which of the following statements about Elton Mayo’s Hawthorne Studies is true?

Choose one answer.

	a. Elton Mayo’s Hawthorne Studies proved work group norms affect productivity.
	b. Elton Mayo’s Hawthorne Studies proved employees do not like to be researched.
	c. Elton Mayo’s Hawthorne Studies proved managers were not necessary.
	d. Elton Mayo’s Hawthorne Studies proved the more light in office space, the more productivity.

Question 10

Job analysis involves all of the following EXCEPT:

Choose one answer.

	a. Studying jobs.
	b. Gathering and analyzing data.
	c. Synthesizing and reporting data.
	d. Conducting performance appraisals.

Question 11

Executive compensation applies to what percentage of the workforce?

Choose one answer.

	a. 1%-2%
	b. 2%-5%
	c. 10%-12%
	d. 20%-25%

Question 12

Fill in the blank. A typical job has more than _________ activities.

Choose one answer.

	a. 20
	b. 50
	c. 100
	d. 200

Question 13

The Occupational Information Network is affiliated with which classification system?

Choose one answer.

	a. DOT
	b. ASCO
	c. ONET
	d. None of the above

Question 14

The “Dictionary of Occupational Titles” (DOT) was developed in response to the demand for standardized occupational information to support what kind of employment service?

Choose one answer.

	a. Private
	b. Public and private
	c. Public
	d. None of the above

Question 15

What does a job description usually contain?

Choose one answer.

	a. A job title and summary of job purpose or objectives
	b. Annual salary
	c. Benefits
	d. Annual pay increases

Question 16

What element of a job would organizing and coordinating schedules be an example of?

Choose one answer.

	a. Physical elements of a job
	b. Mental elements of a job
	c. Both physical and mental
	d. None of the above

Question 17

Which of the following is an example of physical or environmental issues measured by a job analysis?

Choose one answer.

	a. Offensive odors and temperature extremes
	b. Noxious fumes and radioactive substances
	c. Hostile and aggressive people
	d. All of the above

Question 18

Which of the following might be a marginal job function for a receptionist?

Choose one answer.

	a. Escorting a client to an office
	b. Answering the phones
	c. Filing
	d. Typing

Question 19

Which of the following would be an example of differential pay?

Choose one answer.

	a. Night shift work
	b. Day shift work
	c. Regular working hours
	d. A bonus

Question 20

What is the purpose of a job analysis?

Choose one answer.

	a. Structure safety issues
	b. Determine training needs
	c. Recruit management
	d. Forecast for future jobs

Question 21

Fill in the blank. When there is linkage between test performance and job performance there is __________________.

Choose one answer.

	a. Reliability
	b. Standard measure of error
	c. Validity
	d. A hiring

Question 22

Giving sample questions before the actual personnel assessment will reduce which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. Test anxiety
	b. Employee loyalty
	c. The number of employees who pass
	d. Costs

Question 23

If trying to consider how much help to give test taking employees, you should do which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. Ask the employee.
	b. Consult the test manual.
	c. Do anything possible.
	d. All of the above

Question 24

Test-retest reliability measures which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. IQ
	b. Repeatability of a given test
	c. Validity
	d. Work performance

Question 25

What is an example of a personnel characteristic construct?

Choose one answer.

	a. Endurance
	b. Speed
	c. Longevity
	d. Stamina

Question 26

What is CBT an acronym for?

Choose one answer.

	a. Cross-cultural banking technique
	b. Computer based training
	c. Cost better technology
	d. None of the above

Question 27

When a test rates equally for race, gender, and cultural differences, it is said to have which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. Test fairness
	b. Reliability
	c. Good generalizability
	d. Bad generalizability

Question 28

When testing unionized employees, you will need to do which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. Work with the union when choosing a test.
	b. Get permission from management only.
	c. Get permission from union employees who are taking the test.
	d. All of the above

Question 29

Which of the following is a process used to assist organizations with determining the actual content of a job?

Choose one answer.

	a. Job analysis
	b. Job evaluation
	c. Job scrutiny
	d. Attribution

Question 30

Which of the following is the most important principle of assessment?

Choose one answer.

	a. Understandable and comprehensive documentation
	b. Cost effectiveness
	c. Employee likeability
	d. User friendliness

Question 31

Personnel selection tools are used for which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. Selection
	b. Placement
	c. Promotion
	d. All of the above

Question 32

360 degree performance appraisals on employees include evaluations from whom?

Choose one answer.

	a. Peers
	b. Managers
	c. Self
	d. All of the above

Question 33

All are benefits of job appraisal EXCEPT:

Choose one answer.

	a. Motivation and satisfaction.
	b. Training and development.
	c. Safety.
	d. Recruitment and induction.

Question 34

Choose the best answer to fill in the blank. The link between the time period between performance appraisals and rewards is _______________.

Choose one answer.

	a. Very important
	b. Relatively needed
	c. Not that important
	d. Irrelevant to employees

Question 35

Employees are usually less defensive if performance criteria are presented in which of the following ways?

Choose one answer.

	a. As specific, clear, and understandable
	b. As measurable, verifiable, and result-oriented
	c. As attainable, yet sufficiently challenging
	d. All of the above

Question 36

Examples of job specifications or employee oriented job analysis information would include which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. Education and experience
	b. Job summary
	c. Job identification
	d. Tools used

Question 37

Fill in the blank. Many studies have shown that creating performance _____________ increases motivation.

Choose one answer.

	a. Initiatives
	b. Goals
	c. Incentives
	d. Appraisals

Question 38

Fill in the blank. When providing constructive feedback to an employee, allowing the issue to evolve _____________ in the conversation allows for self-auditing by the employee.

Choose one answer.

	a. Naturally
	b. Forced
	c. With care
	d. Blatantly

Question 39

Job evaluation methods can include which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. Ranking
	b. Factor comparison
	c. market comparison
	d. All of the above

Question 40

What is a form of job analysis that organizes work functions into five dimensions, including processing information?

Choose one answer.

	a. Critical incident technique
	b. Position analysis questionnaire
	c. Individual questionnaire
	d. Group questionnaire

Question 41

What is the easiest, fastest, and cheapest way to evaluate employees?

Choose one answer.

	a. Classification
	b. Point Evaluation
	c. Ranking
	d. None of the above

Question 42

Which of the following attempts to assess employee behavior rather than specific characteristics?

Choose one answer.

	a. Graphic rating scales
	b. Management by objectives
	c. Behaviorally anchored rating scales
	d. None of the above

Question 43

Which of the following methods is a form of job evaluation wherein experts, not the job incumbents, are asked how to do a certain job?

Choose one answer.

	a. Technical conference
	b. Diary
	c. Group interview
	d. Questionnaire

Question 44

Which of the following is defined as the relevance of a job to the organization’s mission and goals?

Choose one answer.

	a. Job value
	b. Job content
	c. Job evaluation
	d. Job search

Question 45

According to your James Lindner reading, employee motivation benefits the very essence of the company in an effort to do which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. To help the organization survive
	b. To reach the end of a means with a paycheck
	c. To keep employees satisfied in their job
	d. To promote wellness of employees

Question 46

In order for punishment to be effective it must be which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. Immediate
	b. Not personal
	c. Consistent
	d. All of the above

Question 47

The power of job enrichment is to increase engagement in which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. Meaningfulness
	b. Variety
	c. Autonomy
	d. All of the above

Question 48

Though goals and objectives are often used synonymously, they have one main difference. What is the difference between goals and objectives?

Choose one answer.

	a. Goals are general, and objectives are broad.
	b. Goals are intangible, and objectives are measurable.
	c. Goals are specific as are objectives.
	d. None of the above

Question 49

Title VII and the Equal Pay Act protect employees from which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. Discrimination
	b. Loss of Benefits
	c. Overtime with no pay
	d. All of the above

Question 50

To be effective, what must be true of a reward?

Choose one answer.

	a. A reward must be meaningful to the employee.
	b. A reward must be easily attainable.
	c. A reward must be somewhat linked to expected behaviors.
	d. None of the above

Question 51

What is a systematic program of rewards and punishment for behavior called?

Choose one answer.

	a. Operant conditioning
	b. Classical conditioning
	c. Positive reinforcement
	d. Negative reinforcement

Question 52

Which of the following about Skinner’s theory of motivation is true?

Choose one answer.

	a. It simply stated to positively reinforce positive behaviors.
	b. It simply stated to positively reinforce negative behaviors.
	c. It simply stated to positively reinforce positive and negative behaviors.
	d. All of the above

Question 53

Which of the following is an example of a continuous reinforcement schedule at work?

Choose one answer.

	a. An employee gets positive reinforcement every time a customer order is performed correctly.
	b. An employee gets positive reinforcement every other time a customer order is performed correctly.
	c. An employee gets random bonuses throughout the year.
	d. None of the above

Question 54

All of the following contributed motivation theories EXCEPT:

Choose one answer.

	a. Maslow.
	b. Vroom.
	c. Herzberg.
	d. Freud.

Question 55

All of the following are included in the Blake-Mouton Grid EXCEPT:

Choose one answer.

	a. Identify people oriented leaders.
	b. Identify production oriented leaders.
	c. Identify which leaders are the best.
	d. Help leaders with self growth.

Question 56

Fill in the blank. If a leader told his employees to build a dog house, use 500 nails, 20 2x4 boards, and only a hammer and it must all be done by Tuesday at 5pm with a budget of $500, this would be an example of ________________.

Choose one answer.

	a. Transformational
	b. Authoritarian
	c. Situational
	d. Empathetic

Question 57

Fill in the blank. Maxwell (1999) states that _______________ is the key to leadership.

Choose one answer.

	a. Passion
	b. Love for work
	c. Love for people
	d. The desire to be feared

Question 58

Fill in the blank. Personality and charm are the main characteristics of a ______________ leader.

Choose one answer.

	a. Situational
	b. Charismatic
	c. Diplomatic
	d. Authoritarian

Question 59

The Blake-Mouton Grid describes which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. A concern for people
	b. A concern for production
	c. A concern for both people and production
	d. None of the above

Question 60

What is the main difference between Theory X and Theory Y leaders?

Choose one answer.

	a. Perception of employees
	b. Styles of leadership
	c. Approach to people
	d. All of the above

Question 61

Which leadership style is the exact opposite of an authoritarian leadership style?

Choose one answer.

	a. Transformational
	b. Autocratic
	c. Delegative
	d. None of the above

Question 62

Which of the following is a characteristic of an emotional styled leader?

Choose one answer.

	a. Democratic
	b. Visionary
	c. Coaching
	d. All of the above

Question 63

Which of the following is an example of a leadership competency?

Choose one answer.

	a. Taking risks and innovating
	b. Letting vision and strategy
	c. Managing the work
	d. All of the above

Question 64

Which of the following is an important aspect of employee satisfaction predicted by HR?

Choose one answer.

	a. High pay
	b. Safety
	c. Friends at work
	d. None of the above

Question 65

Which theories in leadership are also known as transformational theories?

Choose one answer.

	a. Participative
	b. Transactional
	c. Behavioral
	d. Relationship

Question 66

Fill in the blank. The Great Man Theory of Leadership assumes that leadership is _________________.

Choose one answer.

	a. Learned
	b. Inherent
	c. Both learned and inherent
	d. Evolved

Question 67

A defensive climate in a group is characterized by which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. Control
	b. Spontaneity
	c. Empathy
	d. Equality

Question 68

Choose the best answer to fill in the blank. Miscommunication is a major source of _______________ in groups.

Choose one answer.

	a. Decision making
	b. Conflict
	c. Success
	d. Problem solving

Question 69

Facilitators are hired when which of the following is a priority?

Choose one answer.

	a. How decisions are made
	b. How fast decisions are made
	c. Obtaining a solution fast
	d. All of the above

Question 70

Fill in the blank. The long term success of a group depends on how it deals with ________________.

Choose one answer.

	a. Deadlock
	b. Failure
	c. Sign posting
	d. Conflict

Question 71

Orientation, conflict, consensus, and closure are a part of whose theory of groups?

Choose one answer.

	a. Fisher’s
	b. Tubb’s
	c. Tuckman’s
	d. Hawthorne’s

Question 72

What are the two basic foci of any group?

Choose one answer.

	a. Task and process
	b. Conflict resolution and decision making
	c. Decision making and cohesiveness
	d. None of the above

Question 73

What are the two main sets of skills a group must have?

Choose one answer.

	a. Interpersonal and decision making
	b. Managerial and decision making
	c. Interpersonal and managerial
	d. Decision making and conflict resolution

Question 74

What is the role of a facilitator in a group?

Choose one answer.

	a. To help with task and conflict
	b. To help with conflict and process
	c. To help with task and process
	d. All of the above

Question 75

When did the famous Hawthorne studies take place?

Choose one answer.

	a. 1930-1935
	b. 1924-1932
	c. 1940-1942
	d. 1950s

Question 76

Which of the following about brainstorming is true?

Choose one answer.

	a. Brainstorming is a group process whereby all opinions count.
	b. Brainstorming is a group process whereby a vote is taken.
	c. Brainstorming is a group process whereby only some opinions count.
	d. None of the above

Question 77

Which of the following is an important characteristic of a facilitator?

Choose one answer.

	a. Being a good listener
	b. Having curiosity
	c. Not interrupting
	d. All of the above

Question 78

Which of the following would be an obstacle to group work?

Choose one answer.

	a. Abiliene paradox
	b. Groupthink
	c. Group polarization
	d. All of the above

Question 79

Newly formed groups over time go through these group dynamics in which order?

Choose one answer.

	a. Performing, storming, norming, forming
	b. Storming, forming, performing, norming
	c. Forming, storming, norming, performing
	d. Norming, forming, storming, performing

Question 80

A green prescription from a doctor might include which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. More outdoor time
	b. Vacation by the sea
	c. Walk in the park
	d. All of the above

Question 81

A leader’s behavior is acceptable and satisfying to subordinates to the extent that they view it as either an immediate source of satisfaction or as an instrument to some future satisfaction is an assumption of what theory?

Choose one answer.

	a. Fiedler’s
	b. Path Goal
	c. Motivational
	d. None of the above

Question 82

All of the following are examples of alternative work schedules EXCEPT:

Choose one answer.

	a. Variable work schedule.
	b. Maximum work schedule.
	c. Comp time.
	d. Glide Time.

Question 83

Choose the best answer to fill in the blanks. Ergonomics is the science of designing user interaction with ______________ and _____________ to fit the user.

Choose one answer.

	a. Equipment, desks
	b. Workplaces, people
	c. Equipment, workplaces
	d. Desks, people

Question 84

Employees in which country work 7 hours a week more on average than employees in other countries?

Choose one answer.

	a. South Korea
	b. USA
	c. Russia
	d. Europe

Question 85

Environmental Psychology grew out of which other type of psychology?

Choose one answer.

	a. Social psychology
	b. Evolutionary psychology
	c. Positive Psychology
	d. Behavioral Psychology

Question 86

Famous situational contingency theories include which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. Fiedler
	b. Path Goal Theory
	c. Hersey Blanchard
	d. All of the above

Question 87

Fill in the blank. Collective bargaining agreements are negotiated with employees and _______________.

Choose one answer.

	a. Human Resources
	b. Managers
	c. Unions
	d. Stock holders

Question 88

Fill in the blank. Herzberg argued that job _______________ must be used for job motivation.

Choose one answer.

	a. Empowerment
	b. Enrichment
	c. Evaluation
	d. Satisfaction

Question 89

Fill in the blanks. Environmental psychology studies the interaction between ____________ and ____________.

Choose one answer.

	a. People, conflict
	b. People, their environment
	c. Environment, ergonomics
	d. Ergonomics, conflict

Question 90

Gilbreth’s theory contributed to ergonomics and human factors by doing which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. Increasing efficiency through the eliminating unnecessary steps in a process
	b. Decreasing the parts associated with a process to help efficiency
	c. Eliminating all unnecessary tasks to quicken the process
	d. All of the above

Question 91

In 1994, a memorandum by the President Bill Clinton recommended that companies provide alternate work schedules in an effort to do which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. Increase productivity
	b. Increase profits
	c. Increase work life balance
	d. All of the above

Question 92

Meal and rest breaks are regulated by which legal act?

Choose one answer.

	a. OSHA-Occupational Safety and Hazard Administration
	b. FSLA-Fair labor Standards Act
	c. HIPPA-Health Insurance Privacy and Protection Act
	d. FMLA- Family Medical and Leave Act

Question 93

Positive mental imagery and sounds are a part of creating what type of environment?

Choose one answer.

	a. Natural environment
	b. Sustained environment
	c. Permanent environment
	d. Design environment

Question 94

The ADA regulates organizations with regard to which of the following?

Choose one answer.

	a. Dental benefits for employees
	b. Employees with disabilities
	c. Safety
	d. None of the above

Question 95

The strengths of Contingency Theory include all of the following EXCEPT:

Choose one answer.

	a. It is supported by a lot of empirical research.
	b. It looks at the impact of the situation on leaders.
	c. It is predictive.
	d. It is easy to use.

Question 96

What are the two factors in Herzberg’s two factor theory?

Choose one answer.

	a. Motivation and persistence
	b. Motivation and empathy
	c. Motivation and hygiene
	d. Hygiene and persistence

Question 97

What does OSHA stand for?

Choose one answer.

	a. Occupational Safety and Health Administrations
	b. Organizational Safety and Health Administration
	c. Occupational Safety and Hospitalization Administration
	d. None of the above

Question 98

What is a disadvantage to job sharing?

Choose one answer.

	a. Hiring more people
	b. Training more people
	c. Finding compatible people to share job
	d. All of the above

Question 99

Which of the following allows a leader to exert a certain amount of influence over a group, because the group is in the right form.

Choose one answer.

	a. Situational favorability
	b. Situational contest
	c. Situational authority
	d. Situational control

Question 100

Who created flex life sessions, which is a work life balance program?

Choose one answer.

	a. Kellogg
	b. Memorial Health Care
	c. Proctor and Gamble
	d. None of the above

Question 101

What percentage of Americans say work-life balance is a problem?

Choose one answer.

	a. 60%
	b. 50%
	c. 89%
	d. 20%