1
Which of the following best describes one of the main criticisms of the “medical model” of mental illness and disease?
Choose one answer.
a. The research within this model is not rigorous enough.
b. The assumption underlying the model communicates that the patient is not responsible for changing his/her condition.
c. There is little emphasis on treatment, as many of these mental health issues are assumed to be inherited.
d. This model allows no room for medical doctors to explore environmental triggers or the context of the patients’ life in general.
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Question 2
Which of the following is a criterion for abnormality?
Choose one answer.
a. High levels of distress
b. Impact on functioning
c. Excesses in behavior
d. All of the above
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Question 3
Which of the following issues is addressed within the various paradigms in psychology?
Choose one answer.
a. How individuals develop over time
b. How individuals can change
c. The contributions of mind and body and the connection between the two
d. All of the above
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Question 4
Which paradigm most strongly focuses on how a person behaves across situations and therefore focuses on the person part of the “person-situation” issue?
Choose one answer.
a. Trait paradigm
b. Cognitive paradigm
c. Psychodynamic paradigm
d. Phenomenological paradigm
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Question 5
Which psychological paradigm stresses the fact that each individual experience is unique and is generally uninterested in classification or grouping others together along some dimension?
Choose one answer.
a. Phenomenological paradigm
b. Trait paradigm
c. Behavioral paradigm
d. Psychodynamic paradigm
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Question 6
Which psychological paradigm values the use of self-report measure, statistics, and profiles of characteristics?
Choose one answer.
a. Phenomenological paradigm
b. Trait paradigm
c. Behavioral paradigm
d. Cognitive paradigm
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Question 7
Which statement best describes the history of paradigms in psychology?
Choose one answer.
a. There is a sequence of one paradigm replacing the other throughout the history of psychology.
b. There have only been two main paradigms, which have waxed and waned in popularity and are use throughout the course of the history of psychology.
c. There have been several paradigms that operate simultaneously together throughout much of the history of psychology.
d. The medical model of mental illness has been the prevailing paradigm throughout the history of psychology.
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Question 8
Which statement most accurately captures the relationship between the mind and the brain?
Choose one answer.
a. The mind and the brain are independent entities.
b. The brain changes the structure of our mind.
c. The mind can change the structure of our brain.
d. It is helpful to think of the mind and the brain as the same entities.
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Question 9
Which statement most accurately represents the process of diagnosing psychiatric/psychological difficulties?
Choose one answer.
a. Self-reported psychological symptoms are all that is necessary to accurately diagnosis a patient.
b. Making a diagnosis in a particular case depends on balancing possibilities and probabilities as each experienced symptom is present in numerous disorders.
c. Research has shown that diagnosing clinicians are notoriously bad at making an accurate diagnosis with regards to mental disorders.
d. It is necessary to obtain peer-reports of the patient’s functioning to obtain an accurate diagnosis.
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Question 10
Choose the best answer to fill in the blank. The process of recognizing and labeling a particular pattern of psychological symptoms and signs is called making a ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. Diagnosis
b. Prognosis
c. Syndrome
d. Treatment recommendation
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Question 11
Choose the best answer to fill in the blanks. In Pavlov’s classical experiment, a dog salivated at the sight and smell of food. After pairing the food with the sound bell over time, the dog began to salivate at the sound of the bell regardless if the food is present. This is an example of ______________ conditioning and the food represents a(n) _______________.
Choose one answer.
a. Operant, unconditioned response
b. Classical, unconditioned stimulus
c. Reinforcement, condition response
d. Classical, conditioned stimulus
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Question 12
Choose the best answer to fill in the blanks. The _______________ paradigm views human nature as essentially “good,” the _________________ paradigm views human nature as essentially “bad,” and finally the ________________ paradigm views human nature as neither good nor bad.
Choose one answer.
a. Trait, psychodynamic, biological
b. Biological, phenomenological, psychodynamic
c. Phenomenological, psychodynamic, behavioral
d. Behavioral, phenomenological, biological
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Question 13
Choose the best answer to fill in the blanks. The amygdala is most closely associated with the ________________. According to your readings, it has been tied to several mental illnesses including ______________.
Choose one answer.
a. Mood instability, Bipolar Disorder
b. Fear response, Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD)
c. Mood instability, Major Depressive Disorder
d. Fear response, Posttraumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)
.
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Question 14
Choose the best answer to fill in the blanks. ________________ paradigm believes that all behavior is motivated, while _______________ paradigm points to the innate nature of many behaviors.
Choose one answer.
a. Cognitive, biological
b. Psychodynamic, biological
c. Phenomenological, psychodynamic
d. Psychodynamic, trait
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Question 15
One of the criticisms of this paradigm is that it is “difficult to test” or a “theory of unobservables.”
Choose one answer.
a. Behavioral paradigm
b. Biological paradigm
c. Psychodynamic paradigm
d. Trait paradigm
.
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Question 16
The token economy approach is most closely associated with which of the following paradigms in abnormal psychology?
Choose one answer.
a. Psychodynamic
b. Cognitive
c. Behavioral
d. Humanistic
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Question 17
The “R” in the S-O-R-C-C Model in the behavioral paradigm of psychology stands for which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. Resolution
b. Resistance
c. Retraining
d. Response
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Question 18
Which paradigm is only concerned with observable phenomena?
Choose one answer.
a. Behavioral
b. Psychodynamic
c. Biological
d. Trait
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Question 19
Which statement is FALSE regarding the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)?
Choose one answer.
a. This assessment falls under the category of a “personality test.”
b. This assessment is most closely associated with the phenomenological paradigm in abnormal psychology.
c. This assessment is considered a projective test in that you are thought to project your own motives and wishes on to your interpretation of various picture scenes.
d. This assessment is similar in nature to the Rorschach test.
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Question 20
Choose the best answer to fill in the blank. Individuals with schizophrenia often have a familial history or predisposition to schizophrenia and have experienced environmental stressors which contribute to the development of the disorder. Based on this, Schizophrenia provides a good example of how the ______________ model might explain the development of a disorder.
Choose one answer.
a. Diathesis-Stress
b. Psychodynamic
c. Behavioral
d. Yerkes-Dodson
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Question 21
A researcher samples a population of individuals with major depressive disorder and gives them two self-report scales in which participants indicate the degree to which they experience stress and the strength of their social support system (i.e., the degree to which they have available supportive others in their life). This would be an example of which of the following types of study?
Choose one answer.
a. Longitudinal study
b. Correlational study
c. Experimental study
d. Archival study
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Question 22
Choose the best answer to fill in the blank. According to your readings, ________________ is the archetypal psychosis.
Choose one answer.
a. Delusional disorder
b. Bipolar disorder
c. Borderline personality disorder
d. Schizophrenia
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Question 23
Random assignment in experimental studies does which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. Allows researchers to control the dosage/degree of treatment within the experimental groups
b. Allows researchers to rule out the possibility that the groups simply get better over time, as individuals tend to improve over time regardless of the treatment
c. Allows researchers to rule out the possibility that the experimental group(s)/control group(s) differ prior to treatment in a way that can interfere with the interpretation of the results
d. Allow researchers to isolate specific treatment aspects that may be most effective in reducing/remitting psychiatric symptoms
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Question 24
The DSM-III represented the first diagnostic manual that contained which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. Explicit diagnostic criteria
b. A multiaxial system
c. A descriptive approach
d. All of the above
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Question 25
Which of the following sections of DSM-IV provides a list of the Suggested New Diagnoses and Criteria Sets that do not yet have enough evidence to be included as a classification but shows potential for further research?
Choose one answer.
a. Appendix B
b. Axis I
c. Axis II
d. Axis III
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Question 26
Which represents a TRUE statement regarding the DSM-III and DSM-IV?
Choose one answer.
a. They are similar in every respect, except for changes made to the diagnostic criteria of personality disorders.
b. The DSM-III is intended for use in outpatient settings, while the DSM-IV is intended for use in inpatient settings.
c. Decisions regarding criteria were made democratically, allowing members of the American Psychiatric Association and the American Psychological Association to vote on various diagnostic criteria.
d. Both diagnostic systems do not attempt to explain/specify etiology but rather characterize and describe mental disorders.
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Question 27
Which statement best defines organic mental disorders?
Choose one answer.
a. Organic mental disorders are those with a physical basis that can be easily diagnosed using current technology.
b. Organic mental disorders are those disorders which have a physical basis.
c. Organic mental disorders are those disorders which occur naturally and have no environmental triggers.
d. Organic mental disorders are those disorders in which diagnostic tools cannot determine the root cause.
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Question 28
Which statement does NOT represent a benefit of having a diagnostic system in psychology?
Choose one answer.
a. Diagnoses represent a way to “shorthand” communication in that one term/diagnosis contains a lot of potentially useful clinical information.
b. Diagnoses are important for record keeping purposes so that individual mental health treatment facilities have information on what sorts of presenting issues are most common to its facility.
c. Diagnoses are used in both clinical and research settings, to help the psychological community know more about the statistics associated with particular disorders.
d. Diagnostic labels can help clinicians form assumptions which hold true across individuals regardless of context.
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Question 29
Which statement is FALSE regarding the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual (DSM-IV)?
Choose one answer.
a. It is mainly categorical in its coding procedure; however, it acknowledges that disorders often occur on a continuum.
b. It is not meant to capture difficulties that more “normal” functioning individuals may have and therefore is not appropriate to use in private practice settings.
c. It is generally considered fairly reliable and valid and is widely used in the mental health field.
d. Physicians, psychologists, and social workers are individuals who may use the DSM-IV to diagnose their clients/patients.
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Question 30
Choose the best answer to fill in the blanks. ________________ disorder is characterized by mood elevated (manic) phases and sad (depressed) phases and is considered a ________________disorder.
Choose one answer.
a. Schizophrenia, psychotic
b. Major depressive disorder, delusional
c. Bipolar, mood
d. Schizophrenia, mood
.
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Question 31
Bill is deciding whether or not to go to the beach or the mountains for his vacation this year. If he goes skiing in the mountains, he will enjoy the opportunity to ski but will spend more money. If he goes to the beach, he will spend less money but, as his extended family lives close by, will be obliged to spend time with his family and less time relaxing. This is an example of which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. Double approach-avoidance conflict
b. Approach-approach conflict
c. Approach-avoidance conflict
d. Avoidance-avoidance conflict
.
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Question 32
Bill keeps having the thought that he might scream “FIRE” while in a public place. Although Bill recognizes that this is an irrational thought, he continues to experience these thoughts and is worried that he might act out on this thought at some point. This is an example of which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. Traumatic memory
b. Obsessive thoughts
c. Compulsive ritual
d. Delusions
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Question 33
Choose the best answer to fill in the blank. According to the psychoanalytic or Freudian interpretation of psychopathology, ________________ anxiety occurs when we have been punished for expressing our id impulses.
Choose one answer.
a. Neurotic
b. Moral
c. Realistic
d. Generalized
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Question 34
Choose the best answer to fill in the blanks. Benzodiazepines are anti-anxiety drugs often used in the treatment of Generalized Anxiety Disorder. These drugs implicate a deregulation in ________________, an ________________ neurotransmitter.
Choose one answer.
a. Norepinephrine, excitatory
b. Serotonin, inhibitory
c. GABA, excitatory
d. GABA, inhibitory
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Question 35
Choose the best answer to fill in the blanks. Cara is working with her therapist to treat her anxiety disorder. First, Cara and her therapist construct a ________________in which they create a list of those situations which represent the least to most frightening. This is representative of desensitization, a popular treatment for phobias which was developed by clinicians/researchers from the ________________ paradigm.
Choose one answer.
a. Anxiety hierarchy, cognitive
b. Anxiety hierarchy, behavioral
c. Exposure list, behavioral
d. Relaxation technique, cognitive
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Question 36
Specific phobias are usually characterized by sympathetic arousal (e.g., blood pressure increases) with the exception of which specific phobia
Choose one answer.
a. Animal type
b. Blood-injection-injury type
c. Situational type
d. Natural environment type
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Question 37
Suzie has an intense fear of scrutiny and fear of criticism. These characteristics are most closely associated with which of the following specific types of anxiety disorders?
Choose one answer.
a. Generalized anxiety disorder
b. Bloody-injection-injury type phobia
c. Social anxiety disorder
d. Post-traumatic-stress disorder
.
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Question 38
Which of the following statements about Generalized Anxiety Disorders is FALSE?
Choose one answer.
a. Research has shown that the 12-month prevalence rate of GAD is about 4%.
b. Approximately 70% of people diagnosed with GAD also have another AXIS I diagnosis.
c. Diagnostic criteria C specifies that the anxiety and worry must be associated with at least 2 physical symptoms (e.g., muscle tension, sleep disturbances, etc.).
d. People diagnosed with GAD tend to worry about many things rather than focusing on one issue.
.
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Question 39
Which of the following statements regarding post-traumatic stress disorder is FALSE?
Choose one answer.
a. It has an immediate onset as symptoms occur directly after the traumatic event.
b. It is often characterized by avoidance of situations which remind the person of the trauma.
c. One diagnostic criterion is “survivor’s guilt,” or the feeling that it is “unfair” that the person survived while others did not.
d. Both A and C
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Question 40
Which of the following statements regarding anxiety is FALSE?
Choose one answer.
a. Anxiety can produce a fight or flight response.
b. Anxiety can focus our attention and prepares us to respond to danger.
c. Anxiety involves both excitatory and inhibitory nervous system responses.
d. Slight anxiety inhibits performance and decreases attention for simple tasks.
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Question 41
A person is frequently concerned that they have a physical disease and seeks out medical attention, yet there is no medical evidence that the person has a physical disease. This person’s symptoms are best characterized by which disorder?
Choose one answer.
a. Factious disorder
b. Hypochondriasis
c. A pain disorder
d. Malingering disorder
.
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Question 42
An individuals’ beliefs regarding the nature of his symptoms can influence which type of professional that he consults with and how the professional manages his symptoms. This statement most closely captures which concept used to explain the phenomena of somatization?
Choose one answer.
a. Attribution theory
b. Psychoanalytic theory
c. Biopsychosocial model
d. Medicalization
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Question 43
Factitious disorder is most closely associated with which of the following disorders/syndromes?
Choose one answer.
a. Conversion disorder
b. Identity fugue disorder
c. Munchausen syndrome
d. Body dysmorphic disorder
.
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Question 44
Fred, a veteran of war, has lost his ability to walk but doctors can find no physical explanation for this disability. Fred would likely be diagnosed with which of the following disorders?
Choose one answer.
a. Somatoform pain disorder
b. Hypochondriasis
c. Conversion disorder
d. Malingering factitious disorder
.
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Question 45
Research has shown that cognitive-behavioral treatment for somatization can be improved by doing which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. Labeling psychosocial distress as the cause of many unexplained physical symptoms
b. Labeling psychosocial distress in terms of consequences rather than as causes of unexplained physical symptoms
c. Focusing on cognitive distortions rather than behavioral changes
d. Attention to facilitating happiness and well-being rather than curing the psychological distress which can cause unexplained physical symptoms
.
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Question 46
Research has shown that somatization is positively associated with which of the following phenomenon?
Choose one answer.
a. An intense fear of criticism and failure
b. Difficulty with the identification and expression of emotions
c. Feelings of self-doubt, guilt, and worthlessness
d. The presence of the negative symptoms also associated with schizophrenia
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Question 47
Supporters of which particular paradigm in abnormal psychology paid close attention to conversion disorders and placed conceptual importance on the secondary gains of such symptoms (i.e., a release of responsibilities from daily life and support from others)?
Choose one answer.
a. Behavioral
b. Cognitive
c. Biological
d. Psychoanalytic
.
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Question 48
Which statement does NOT represent a potential reason for the medicalization phenomena?
Choose one answer.
a. It can be difficult to distinguish psychopathology from normal forms of distress as this requires extensive expertise and training.
b. Traditional emotional/social support has become less available, which may help to explain why the medical profession and related professions are now providing psychological and social support at an increasing rate.
c. Drug companies and some psychiatrists have promoted their own profession through either inadvertently or purposefully encouraging medicalization.
d. People are seeking medical services less frequently so that by the time they get to the doctors, their symptoms are more severe.
.
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Question 49
Which two terms are best associated with a situation in which psychological stress is interpreted as a psychological disorder?
Choose one answer.
a. Somatization and medicalization
b. Malingering and medicalization
c. Somatization and dissociation
d. Malingering and diagnosing
.
.
Question 50
Choose the best answers to fill in the blanks. Sahar has undergone over 13 plastic surgeries and has an exaggerated and excessive concern with her appearance. Sahar’s symptoms are characteristic of ________________, which is a type of ________________ disorder.
Choose one answer.
a. Body dysmorphic disorder, somatoform
b. Factitious disorder, somatoform
c. Body phobic disorder, dissociative
d. Factitious disorder, dissociative
.
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Question 51
According to the material you read and viewed in this course, what makes treatment of eating disorders difficult?
Choose one answer.
a. Motivational issues make treatment difficult as sometimes friends/family are more concerned about a person’s disordered eating habits than the individual under treatment.
b. The development of eating disorders has been predominately linked with genetic inheritance, so it is more resistant to treatment and change than any other disorder.
c. Non-compliance issues make treatment difficult, as motivation to change may be low.
d. Both A and C
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Question 52
Choose the best answer to fill in the blank. In ________________ percent of cases of insomnia, insomnia is the primary problem and not the symptom of another physical or mental health issue.
Choose one answer.
a. 10
b. 30
c. 40
d. 75
.
.
Question 53
Choose the best answer to fill in the blanks. The sleep hygiene recommendation that you get out of bed if you cannot fall asleep is most closely associated with the ________________ paradigm, as it can potentially involve principles related to ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. Biological, circadian rhythms
b. Cognitive, irrational thoughts
c. Biopsychosocial, hormonal disruptions
d. Behavioral, conditioning
.
.
Question 54
Kiran has been experiencing difficulty getting to sleep for the last three months. As a sleep disorders specialist, you have Kiran describe her daily routines. She reports that she goes for a run/shower after work around 6pm. She does more work after exercising for about 2 hours from 7:30pm-9:30pm and eats dinner directly after finishing her work from 9:30-10:00pm. She then gets into bed around 10pm and watches TV in bed until she is able to fall asleep. After hearing her daily routine, you make several suggestions. Which statement represents an UNHELPFUL suggestion?
Choose one answer.
a. You suggest that Kiran should eat dinner earlier, as a full meal before bed can disrupt normal sleep patterns.
b. You suggest that Kiran should exercise in the early morning before work, as any exercise after 5pm can disrupt normal sleep patterns.
c. You suggest that Kiran should not watch TV in bed as it can engage the brain, which can disrupt normal sleep patterns.
d. You suggest that Kiran should move up her work time as she may be working too late at night, which can disrupt normal sleep patterns.
.
.
Question 55
Please read the following statement and indicate if it is true of false: Research has shown that drug treatment is generally effective in treating eating disorders.
Choose one answer.
a. True
b. False
.
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Question 56
Which eating disorder is NOT characterized by periods of binge eating?
Choose one answer.
a. Anorexia – restricting type
b. Anorexia – binge-purge type
c. Bulimia – purging type
d. Bulimia – non-purge type
.
.
Question 57
Which of the following has NOT been conclusively linked with anorexia nervosa?
Choose one answer.
a. Adverse life events
b. Childhood sexual abuse
c. Personality disorders
d. Genetic inheritance
.
.
Question 58
Which of the following statements regarding Rapid Eye Movement (REM) sleep is FALSE?
Choose one answer.
a. Research has shown that REM sleep is associated with the consolidation of memories.
b. Research has shown that the more REM sleep you get, the better your mood will be.
c. The majority of REM sleep occurs in the beginning portion of sleep.
d. Individuals with the greatest proportion of REM sleep are more likely to be diagnosed with serious mental health disorders.
.
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Question 59
Which statement is TRUE regarding the relationship between childhood sexual abuse and bulimia nervosa?
Choose one answer.
a. Childhood sexual abuse occurs more commonly in people with bulimia nervosa than in people with other psychiatric disorders.
b. The majority of people with bulimia nervosa have been exposed to this trauma.
c. Childhood sexual abuse is more common in people with bulimia nervosa than normal control populations.
d. There is no relationship between childhood sexual abuse and bulimia nervosa.
.
.
Question 60
What percentage of people diagnosed with anorexia nervosa are women?
Choose one answer.
a. 50%
b. 75%
c. 90%
d. 99%
.
.
Question 61
Antwon was misdiagnosed as having major depressive disorder when, in fact, he has bipolar disorder. He was given an anti-depressant by his prescribing psychiatrist. Which of the following best describes what will likely result?
Choose one answer.
a. Antwon’s symptoms will remit, and he will begin to function better.
b. Antwon may be propelled into a manic episode, as anti-depressants are contraindicated (i.e., cause harm rather than benefit) for bipolar disorder.
c. Antwon will show no change in her symptoms.
d. Antwon’s symptoms will decrease, but she will not show the same improvement as she might on a mood stabilizer.
.
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Question 62
Choose the best answer to fill in the blank. A monozygotic twin of a bipolar patient has about a _____% risk of developing the disorder.
Choose one answer.
a. 20
b. 35
c. 45
d. 60
.
.
Question 63
Choose the best answer to fill in the blanks. According to your lectures, about ________________ percent of people with depression die of suicide, and ________________ percent of people with bipolar disorders die of suicide.
Choose one answer.
a. Ten, one
b. Ten, twenty
c. One, ten
d. Twenty, ten
.
.
Question 64
Choose the best answer to fill in the blanks. The ________________ paradigm often conceptualizes ________________ as “anger turned inward.”
Choose one answer.
a. Behavioral, depression
b. Psychodynamic, depression
c. Cognitive, bipolar disorder
d. Humanism, schizophrenia
.
.
Question 65
Chronic suicidality is most closely associated with which of the following diagnoses?
Choose one answer.
a. Major depressive disorder
b. Borderline personality disorder
c. Bipolar I disorder
d. Cyclothymia
.
.
Question 66
Sally, a 17-year-old female, is brought into the ER by her family who worry about her increasingly destructive behavior. Although Sally reports that she “never felt better,” as a psychiatrist, you notice that she is speaking rapidly, switches topics quickly, and is very difficult to interrupt. She reports needing very little sleep and denies the presence of hallucinations and delusions. After interviewing her parents, you learn that Sally acknowledged that she recently bought thousands of dollars of clothing online. Her parents are perplexed, as Sally was previously doing well in life. As a psychiatrist, you are most likely to hypothesize which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. As Sally is a teenager, it is perfectly normal for her to rebel against her parents, so you would likely deem this as developmentally appropriate behavior.
b. Sally may be showing signs of schizophrenia, as she is around the age of average onset.
c. Sally may be showing signs of a manic episode, so further questions are needed to assess for the presence of bipolar disorder.
d. Sally is showing signs of a personality disorder.
.
.
Question 67
What are the two “riskiest” times as far as suicide completion risk for those patients who are hospitalized at a psychiatric facility?
Choose one answer.
a. Immediately after admissions and discharge
b. Immediately after discharge and prior to admission
c. While in the hospital and immediately after discharge
d. While in the hospital and prior to admissions
.
.
Question 68
Which statement is FALSE regarding the sociological model of suicide?
Choose one answer.
a. Societies that promote attachment to the greater society provide meaning and purpose for individuals.
b. Societies that have stricter government and regulations help individuals to feel supported.
c. Societies that promote limits to the aspirations and behaviors of individuals help to reduce the likelihood of disappointments in the individual.
d. Both A and C
.
.
Question 69
Which symptom can be particularly evident for children diagnosed with depression, as compared to adults with depression?
Choose one answer.
a. Irritability
b. Depressed mood
c. Suicide
d. Enuresis (urinating on oneself)
.
.
Question 70
Which cognitive ability is most commonly and directly affected by major depressive disorder?
Choose one answer.
a. Attention/concentration
b. Critical thinking skills
c. Working memory
d. Long-term memory
.
.
Question 71
Choose the best answer to fill in the blank. ________________ is a negative symptom of schizophrenia, which is characterized by reduced interpersonal skills, social isolation, and reduced motivation and drive.
Choose one answer.
a. Avolition
b. Anhedonia
c. Apathy
d. Hallucinations
.
.
Question 72
Choose the best answer to fill in the blanks. Although medication is the primary treatment of choice in schizophrenia, ________________ therapy, whose goal is to ________________, has been linked to lower relapse rates after hospitalization
Choose one answer.
a. Family, reduce expressed emotionality in families
b. Cognitive, reduce the number of irrational thoughts
c. Humanistic, reduce conditions of worth within families
d. Psychodynamic, address the deeper rooted meaning of the patient’s symptoms
.
.
Question 73
Choose the best answer to fill in the blanks. Research has shown that people with chronic negative symptoms tend to have a ________________ course and are _____________ likely to recover.
Choose one answer.
a. Shorter, more
b. Longer, less
c. Shorter, less
d. Longer, more
.
.
Question 74
Delusions can occur in all of the following diagnosable mental disorders EXCEPT:
Choose one answer.
a. Substance abuse disorder.
b. Borderline personality disorder.
c. Major depressive disorder.
d. Schizophrenia.
.
.
Question 75
Serika is a patient at a psychiatric hospital with schizophrenia. She complains that she does not want to spend time in the common room, because the news anchors on television are purposefully trying to make specific references to her which she finds “annoying.” This description is best associated with which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. Grandiose delusion
b. Auditory hallucination
c. Delusion of reference
d. Visual hallucination
.
.
Question 76
The term schizophrenia was coined by Eugene Bleuler in the 20th century and means which of the following in the Swiss language?
Choose one answer.
a. Fragmentation
b. Dementia
c. Split personality
d. Split mind
.
.
Question 77
Timothy has been diagnosed with schizophrenia but does not exhibit any negative symptoms of schizophrenia. Which subtype of schizophrenia does Timothy have?
Choose one answer.
a. Paranoid
b. Disorganized
c. Catatonic
d. Undifferentiated
.
.
Question 78
Which mental disorder is thought to involve excessive dopamine in the brain and is correlated with enlarged ventricles in the brain?
Choose one answer.
a. Major depressive disorder
b. Bipolar disorder
c. Schizophrenia
d. Narcissistic personality disorder
.
.
Question 79
Which statement is TRUE regarding the statistics known about the prevalence and impact of schizophrenia within the United States?
Choose one answer.
a. 1 in 100 people will at some point be diagnosed with schizophrenia in his or her lifetime.
b. There is a higher incidence of schizophrenia diagnosis in lower socioeconomic status patients.
c. Schizophrenia often involves hospitalization at some point within the course of the disorder.
d. All of the above
.
.
Question 80
Edward, a 17-year-old male, has become socially isolated and has started to decline in his academic performance. In addition, his friends have noticed that he has some odd or bizarre thinking. As Edward’s psychologist, which of the following hypotheses would you likely NOT have?
Choose one answer.
a. Edward may be in the prodromal stages of the development of schizophrenia.
b. Edward may have depression with some psychotic features.
c. Edward may have borderline personality disorder.
d. All of the above
.
.
Question 81
According to the lectures in this course, what is one theory regarding the etiology of dissociative disorders?
Choose one answer.
a. Dissociative disorders are likely genetic, as there is a strong correlation of occurrence among family members.
b. The symptoms associated with dissociative disorders are a manifestation of repressed ego consciousness and id/ego conflict.
c. The symptoms associated with dissociative disorders serve to protect the individual in some fashion, as the precipitating event prior to onset is usually some distressing event.
d. The symptoms associated with dissociative disorders are due to exposures to toxins in the environment.
.
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Question 82
Ajay was an engineer who lived in Texas, and in May of 1997, he did not come home from work. His company laptop was pawned at a shop near the airport, and his company car was found in the airport parking lot. He could not recall who his identity or how he got to his current location. He took on a new name, got a job, and made friends. Finally, he decided to go to the police, who reunited him with his wife and family in Texas. Ajay most likely would be diagnosed with which of the following mental health disorders?
Choose one answer.
a. Depersonalization disorder
b. Dissociative fugue disorder
c. Dissociative amnesia disorder
d. Dissociative identity disorder
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Question 83
In one study, researchers measured the eye blink rate of each “alternative personality” of a person diagnosed with dissociative identity disorder. The researchers measured eye blink rate as the average number of blinks per minute being characteristic of a particular person and fairly stable across time. What did the researchers find?
Choose one answer.
a. Eye blink rates did not differ among the different personality states, which suggests that the personality states represent relatively unique personalities.
b. Eye blink rates differed between the “stronger” personalities (i.e., the guardian and perpetrator personalities) but not between the “weaker” personalities (i.e., the victim personality).
c. The data was inconclusive and a follow-up study was not conducted.
d. Eye blink rates differed among the personality states, which suggests that the personality states represent relatively unique personalities.
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Question 84
One study compared somatoform disorders with dissociative disorders in children. The preliminary findings, which will need replication, were that children with somatoform disorders had higher IQ’s on average than children with dissociative identity disorder. This finding is consistent with which of the following paradigms in abnormal psychology?
Choose one answer.
a. Psychodynamic, as this theory understands dissociative disorder as a form of emotional and cognitive immaturity
b. Behavioral, as this theory understands that individuals with dissociative disorder often come from less intellectually enriched environments
c. Cognitive, as this theory understands that somatic symptoms are a fairly intellectually sophisticated way of getting help as compared to dissociative symptoms
d. Humanistic, as individuals with dissociative disorders often come from environments in which they have more conditions of worth which can interfere with intellectual development
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Question 85
When interviewed, some survivors of the World Trade Center attacks reported that they could not remember how they got out of the damaged buildings or what streets they took to get away from the area. This is an example of which of the following types of amnesia?
Choose one answer.
a. Localized amnesia
b. Continuous amnesia
c. Selective amnesia
d. Generalized amnesia
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Question 86
Which disorder was originally called multiple personality disorder, and why did the name change?
Choose one answer.
a. Borderline personality disorder was originally called multiple personality disorder but changed, because the original label was thought to be misleading in that the “personalities” are actually “personality states” and do not exactly match the notion of a complete personality.
b. Dissociative identity disorder was originally called multiple personality disorder but changed, because it became clear that there was one “predominate” personality.
c. Borderline personality disorder was originally called multiple personality disorder but changed, because it became clear that there was one “predominate” personality.
d. Dissociative identity disorder was originally called multiple personality disorder but changed, because the original label was thought to be misleading in that the “personalities” are actually “personality states” and do not exactly match the notion of a complete personality.
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Question 87
Which of the following does NOT represent a “usual role” of the personality states assumed at different points by a person diagnosed with dissociative identity disorder?
Choose one answer.
a. Victim
b. Catalyst
c. Guardian/protector
d. Perpetrator
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Question 88
Which statement captures the demographic differences discussed in your lectures on dissociative identity disorder (DID)?
Choose one answer.
a. Women diagnosed with DID tend to exhibit more “personality states” than men.
b. African Americans diagnosed with DID tend to exhibit more “personality states” than their Caucasian counterparts.
c. Younger persons diagnosed with DID tend to exhibit more “personality states” than older persons.
d. Individuals with a lower socioeconomic status who are diagnosed with DID tend to exhibit more “personality states” than those with a higher socioeconomic status.
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Question 89
Which two disorders may be closely conceptually linked, in that one disorder experienced at a young age may lead to the development of the other disorder?
Choose one answer.
a. Dissociative amnesia disorder, Dissociative fugue disorder
b. Mood disorder, Borderline personality disorder
c. Depersonalization disorder, Dissociative identity disorder
d. Bipolar disorder, Schizophrenia
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Question 90
“Protective denial” and “motivated forgetting” are terms best associated with which group of disorders?
Choose one answer.
a. Dissociative disorders
b. Mood disorders
c. Somatoform disorders
d. Personality disorders
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Question 91
According to the research literature detailed in the lectures for this course, “successful psychopaths” or those with anti-social personality disorder who function relatively “well” in society, tend to have which of the following characteristics?
Choose one answer.
a. Higher levels of social support or higher levels of intelligence
b. High need for stimulation
c. High levels of extraversion
d. All of the above
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Question 92
Choose the best answer to fill in the blanks. Research suggests that ________________ is associated with alexithymia, while ________________ is associated with under-regulation of affect (i.e., intense emotional experiences/responses).
Choose one answer.
a. Somatoform disorder, borderline personality disorder
b. Mood disorder, narcissistic personality disorder
c. Generalized anxiety disorder, schizophrenia
d. Insomnia, anorexia nervosa
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Question 93
Maria has borderline personality disorder (BPD), and she has been seeing a clinician who has been using cognitive-behavioral treatment. As an expert in the field, you determine which of the following regarding the appropriateness of Maria’s treatment?
Choose one answer.
a. This is not appropriate, as only Dialectical Behavioral Therapy has been shown to be an effective treatment for BPD.
b. Maria should also be prescribed medication, as this is the treatment of choice for BPD.
c. Maria can only benefit slightly from treatment, so it is more ethical to discontinue treatment at this point.
d. Cognitive-Behavioral Treatment is acceptable for patients diagnosed with BPD, although there are other approaches that have been found to be effective as well.
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Question 94
Miranda shows a long-term pattern of having difficulties in interpersonal relationships, engages in self-harm behaviors, has chronic feelings of emptiness, is highly reactive in her mood states, and shows a marked sensitivity to perceived rejection or abandonment. As Miranda’s clinician, which diagnostic criteria might be your strongest contender?
Choose one answer.
a. Schizophrenia
b. Histrionic personality disorder
c. Borderline personality disorder
d. Bipolar disorder
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Question 95
Ralph comes to your office, reporting that he has never had a meaningful relationship with others, despite his desire to connect with others. His occupation as an accountant requires little human contact, and you notice that he is preoccupied with being criticized or rejected in social situations. He has chronic low self-esteem, sees himself as inferior to others, and reports being very inhibited in any new interpersonal situations due to his feelings of inadequacy. Given the information presented, which primary diagnosis would you be most likely to hypothesize?
Choose one answer.
a. Avoidant personality disorder
b. Generalized anxiety disorder
c. Dependent personality disorder
d. Major depressive disorder
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Question 96
Stan has a propensity towards analyzing your every remark for hidden meaning. He frequently questions your good intentions and is prone towards commenting on your “hidden agenda” as a therapist. His thought processes remain intake, and he denies the presence of hallucinations. As Stan’s clinician, which diagnostic criteria might be your strongest contender?
Choose one answer.
a. Paranoid schizophrenia
b. Paranoid personality disorder
c. Narcissistic personality disorder
d. Antisocial personality disorder
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Question 97
There are some controversial aspects to AXIS-II diagnoses. Which statement DOES NOT represent one of these aspects?
Choose one answer.
a. There is less empirical research on personality disorders, which makes it more difficult to say with confidence that it is, in fact, a true “disorder.”
b. There are therapy complications with labeling individuals as having “personality disorders” as it is believed that people with personality disorders may make less therapeutic gains—a belief which can become a “self-fulfilling prophecy” impacting therapeutic outcomes.
c. The prevalence rates for personality disorders remains relatively unknown and is thought to be relatively low, which begs the question of whether or not these groups of disorders should be a part of the DSM-IV.
d. Personality features exist on a spectrum, which means it is difficult to demarcate a line between normal and abnormal personalities.
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Question 98
Which of the following statements about personality disorders is TRUE?
Choose one answer.
a. Personality disorders are characterized by an enduring pattern of inner experience that can lead to distress and impairment.
b. Personality disorders are characterized by behavior that deviates markedly from the expectations of the individual’s culture.
c. Personality disorders usually have an onset in adolescence or early adulthood.
d. All of the above
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Question 99
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding dialectical behavior therapy (DBT) for the treatment of borderline personality disorder?
Choose one answer.
a. DBT places an emphasis on a team approach to treatment (i.e., a team of clinicians)/
b. DBT assumes that once childhood traumas are accessed, symptoms will remit.
c. Skills training is one very important component of DBT treatment.
d. DBT places equal emphasis on change-focused treatment and acceptance-focused treatment.
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Question 100
People with personality disorders have “alloplastic defenses” and experience their symptoms as “ego-syntonic.” Which option most accurately interprets this sentence?
Choose one answer.
a. People with personality disorders react to stress by attempting to change the external environment as they often do not see the need to change any aspects of themselves.
b. People with personality disorders react to stress by attempting to change their internal “environment” (to change themselves) as they often do not see the need to change any aspects of themselves.
c. People with personality disorders react to stress by attempting to change their internal “environment” (to change themselves) as they often perceive their symptoms as objectionable and see a need to change aspects of themselves.
d. People with personality disorders react to stress by attempting to change the external environment as they often perceive their symptoms as objectionable and see a need to change aspects of themselves.
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